CCP Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CCP facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A property claimant rejects the adjuster's scope of loss and demands an independent appraisal. The adjuster's communication response should: → Acknowledge the right to appraisal under the policy and explain the process clearly
2. When a claimant is a minor, what additional step is typically required to finalize a settlement? → Court approval of the settlement to protect the minor's interests
3. When a state statute requires an insurer to pay 'first-party' medical payments (MedPay) regardless of fault, this coverage operates on what basis? → No-fault basis — coverage pays the insured's medical bills without regard to liability
4. Which factor would most likely increase an adjuster's evaluation of a claimant's general damages? → Objective MRI findings corroborating complaints of pain
5. An adjuster discovers during negotiation that a claimant's attorney is under time pressure due to a filing deadline. This information represents: → Negotiating leverage that can be used ethically to influence timing
6. A pollution exclusion in a CGL policy that uses 'absolute' language would most likely exclude coverage for: → Carbon monoxide poisoning from a malfunctioning HVAC unit
7. A newly purchased policy is followed within days by a large theft claim. This scenario most closely resembles which fraud scheme? → Policy inception fraud
8. A 'walk-away number' in claims negotiation refers to: → The maximum amount the insurer will pay before abandoning settlement
9. What is the significance of the 'period of restoration' in a business interruption claim? → It defines the period during which lost income and extra expenses are covered
10. Which document formally concludes a liability claim by preventing the claimant from pursuing further legal action? → Release of all claims
11. What is the primary purpose of a Proof of Loss document in a property claim? → To formally document the insured's claim and provide sworn statement of the loss details
12. A property policy has a $250,000 limit with a $10,000 deductible. The insured suffers a $75,000 loss. What does the insurer pay? → $65,000
13. Which of the following is NOT typically recorded during a standard FNOL intake? → The claimant's credit score
14. What is the purpose of a deductible in insurance? → It encourages policyholder responsibility
15. Which of the following BEST describes the 'reservation price' in settlement negotiations? → The minimum or maximum amount a party will accept before walking away
16. An FNOL is received for a workers' compensation claim. Which piece of information is most critical to capture immediately? → The date, time, and specific circumstances of the workplace injury
17. An insured fails to report a property loss within the timeframe specified in the policy. Under what circumstances can the insurer use this to deny the claim? → Only if the insurer can demonstrate it was actually prejudiced by the late notice
18. What is the significance of a 'loan receipt' arrangement in subrogation? → It frames the insurer's payment as a loan, preserving the insured's standing to sue
19. Which quality assurance method is most commonly applied in claims management software to verify that CCP professional standards are being met? → Structured audits, peer reviews, and performance metrics aligned with industry benchmarks
20. Under the doctrine of reasonable expectations, courts will interpret an insurance policy in favor of: → The objectively reasonable expectations of the insured
21. What is subrogation in insurance claims? → Insurer recovering losses from liable third parties
22. What is the primary risk of setting diary intervals that are too long on a bodily injury claim? → Missed statute of limitations, delayed treatment updates, or stale evidence
23. A homeowner's 'open perils' (all-risk) policy covers losses that are: → Caused by any peril not specifically excluded
24. Why is coverage analysis important? → To verify that the claim is valid under the policy
25. Under state bad faith laws, which element does a claimant typically NOT need to prove to establish insurer bad faith? → The insurer intended to commit fraud
26. An estimate includes 'general conditions' as a line item. What costs does this typically cover? → Job-site overhead such as supervision, portable toilets, and dumpsters
27. Permanent Total Disability (PTD) benefits are appropriate when: → The worker is completely and permanently unable to engage in any gainful employment
28. A claimant submits receipts for items allegedly destroyed in a fire, but the receipts appear to be altered. The adjuster should: → Document the suspected alterations and refer to the SIU for forensic document examination
29. An adjuster settling a minor's claim must typically: → Obtain court approval of the settlement
30. What is the primary purpose of a 'reserves adequacy' report generated by claims management software? → To assess whether set-aside amounts are sufficient to cover projected claim costs