CCMA Practice Test: Video 1 Answers (25 Questions) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A patient has both Medicare Part B and a Medigap policy. Which payer is billed first?

The payer with the highest reimbursement rate
Either payer, depending on the patient's preference
Medicare Part B, as it is the primary payer (Correct answer)
Medigap, because it is the supplemental policy

Correct answer: Medicare Part B, as it is the primary payer

Medicare Part B is always the primary payer for Medicare beneficiaries; Medigap pays after Medicare processes the claim.

Question 2: Which ICD-10-CM code category is used to report external causes of morbidity, such as a patient injured in a car accident?

V, W, X, Y codes (Correct answer)
Z codes
T codes
E codes

Correct answer: V, W, X, Y codes

In ICD-10-CM, V, W, X, and Y codes classify external causes of injury and morbidity.

Question 3: The Relative Value Unit (RVU) system used in Medicare's RBRVS fee schedule consists of which three components?

CPT code, ICD code, and HCPCS code
Facility, professional, and ancillary
Work, practice expense, and malpractice (Correct answer)
Diagnosis, procedure, and time

Correct answer: Work, practice expense, and malpractice

RVUs are composed of physician work, practice expense, and malpractice expense components, each adjusted by a geographic factor.

Question 4: Under HIPAA, which standard transaction set is used for electronic submission of professional healthcare claims?

ASC X12 837P (Correct answer)
ASC X12 270/271
ASC X12 276/277
ASC X12 835

Correct answer: ASC X12 837P

The HIPAA 837P transaction is the electronic standard for submitting professional (physician) claims.

Question 5: A coder assigns CPT code 99213 for an established patient office visit. Which factor is NOT used to determine the level of E/M service?

The physician's years of experience (Correct answer)
Total time spent on the date of the encounter
History and physical examination (for pre-2021 guidelines)
Medical decision making

Correct answer: The physician's years of experience

E/M level selection is based on medical decision making and time (or key components), not the provider's years of experience.

Question 6: The suffix '-plasty' means:

surgical repair or reconstruction (Correct answer)
removal of
destruction of
study of

Correct answer: surgical repair or reconstruction

'-plasty' means surgical repair or reconstruction, as in rhinoplasty (nose reshaping) or arthroplasty (joint repair).

Question 7: The medical term 'tachycardia' means:

irregular heart rate
slow heart rate
absent heart rate
fast heart rate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: fast heart rate

Tachycardia combines 'tachy-' (fast) and 'cardia' (heart), meaning an abnormally fast heart rate, typically above 100 bpm.

Question 8: The term 'hematuria' refers to:

blood in the stool
low blood pressure
blood in the urine (Correct answer)
excess red blood cells

Correct answer: blood in the urine

Hematuria combines 'hemato-' (blood) and '-uria' (urine condition), meaning blood in the urine.

Question 9: What does the root word 'hepat/o' refer to?

spleen
liver (Correct answer)
kidney
heart

Correct answer: liver

Hepat/o is the combining form for the liver, as seen in hepatitis (liver inflammation) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver).

Question 10: Which prefix means 'below' or 'under'?

epi-
hypo- (Correct answer)
supra-
hyper-

Correct answer: hypo-

Hypo- means below or under, as in hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) or hypodermic (under the skin).

Question 11: When documenting a patient's chief complaint in the medical record, the MA should:

Only document after the provider confirms the complaint
Summarize based on the MA's clinical assessment
Record the patient's own words in quotation marks (Correct answer)
Paraphrase the complaint using medical terminology

Correct answer: Record the patient's own words in quotation marks

The chief complaint should be recorded verbatim in the patient's own words within quotation marks to accurately reflect the patient's perspective.

Question 12: When assisting a patient with ambulation using a gait belt, the MA should position themselves:

At arm's length to avoid interfering with movement
Behind and slightly to the patient's weaker side (Correct answer)
Behind and slightly to the patient's stronger side
Directly in front of the patient

Correct answer: Behind and slightly to the patient's weaker side

Standing at the patient's weaker side allows the MA to provide support and prevent falls toward the affected side.

Question 13: A patient states they have not had a bowel movement in 5 days and reports abdominal bloating. The medical assistant should FIRST:

Administer a laxative immediately
Document and report the complaint to the provider (Correct answer)
Encourage increased fluid intake without reporting
Perform a rectal examination

Correct answer: Document and report the complaint to the provider

The MA must document the symptom and report it to the provider before initiating any intervention.

Question 14: When measuring urine output as part of intake and output (I&O) monitoring, the medical assistant should record the volume in:

Liters only
Milliliters (mL) (Correct answer)
Ounces only
Cubic centimeters converted to grams

Correct answer: Milliliters (mL)

Urine output and all fluid measurements in I&O monitoring are documented in milliliters (mL) using a calibrated measuring device.

Question 15: When applying a warm compress to a patient, what is the maximum recommended temperature to prevent burns?

115°F (46°C)
125°F (52°C)
105°F (41°C) (Correct answer)
98°F (37°C)

Correct answer: 105°F (41°C)

Warm compresses should not exceed 105°F (41°C) to prevent thermal injury to skin tissue.

Question 16: The PR interval on an EKG normally measures:

0.20 to 0.28 seconds
0.40 to 0.44 seconds
0.06 to 0.10 seconds
0.12 to 0.20 seconds (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 0.12 to 0.20 seconds

A normal PR interval ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 seconds (3–5 small squares), representing atrial depolarization and AV node conduction delay.

Question 17: A medical assistant notices the EKG tracing shows a flat, wandering baseline. The MOST likely cause is:

Patient movement or breathing (Correct answer)
Reversed limb leads
Low battery in the EKG machine
Incorrect paper speed setting

Correct answer: Patient movement or breathing

A wandering baseline is most commonly caused by patient movement, muscle tremor, or breathing artifact during the recording.

Question 18: A patient's EKG shows no P waves and an irregularly irregular rhythm. This pattern is MOST consistent with:

Atrial fibrillation (Correct answer)
Sinus bradycardia
Premature ventricular contractions
First-degree AV block

Correct answer: Atrial fibrillation

The absence of distinct P waves combined with an irregularly irregular ventricular rhythm is the hallmark of atrial fibrillation.

Question 19: Which of the following is the CORRECT placement for lead aVR?

Right arm electrode is the positive pole (Correct answer)
Left arm electrode is the positive pole
Left leg electrode is the positive pole
All limb electrodes combined form the positive pole

Correct answer: Right arm electrode is the positive pole

In augmented lead aVR, the right arm electrode serves as the positive pole, and it views the heart from the right shoulder perspective.

Question 20: On a standard EKG strip, the paper speed in the United States is:

100 mm/sec
10 mm/sec
50 mm/sec
25 mm/sec (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 25 mm/sec

Standard US EKG paper speed is 25 mm per second, which means each small square represents 0.04 seconds.

Question 21: A patient is allergic to penicillin. The provider orders cephalexin. The medical assistant should:

Administer half the dose to test for reaction
Substitute amoxicillin instead
Inform the provider of the allergy before administering (Correct answer)
Administer the medication as ordered

Correct answer: Inform the provider of the allergy before administering

Cephalosporins share a similar beta-lactam ring with penicillin and carry a cross-reactivity risk; the provider must be notified before administration.

Question 22: Which of the following is an example of a beta-blocker medication?

Lisinopril
Furosemide
Metoprolol (Correct answer)
Amlodipine

Correct answer: Metoprolol

Metoprolol (Lopressor, Toprol-XL) is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, angina, and heart failure.

Question 23: Which of the following is the correct technique when preparing an insulin injection from two different types of insulin in one syringe?

Mix both vials together before drawing
Use a separate syringe for each type
Draw clear insulin first, then cloudy (Correct answer)
Draw cloudy insulin first, then clear

Correct answer: Draw clear insulin first, then cloudy

The correct technique is to draw clear (regular) insulin first, then cloudy (NPH) insulin, to prevent contamination of the clear vial.

Question 24: Which of the following medications is classified as an NSAID?

Acetaminophen
Codeine
Ibuprofen (Correct answer)
Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: Ibuprofen

Ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that reduces pain, fever, and inflammation.

Question 25: A patient is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which condition is a contraindication for this medication?

Hypothyroidism
Osteoporosis
Renal impairment (eGFR < 30) (Correct answer)
Hypertension

Correct answer: Renal impairment (eGFR < 30)

Metformin is contraindicated in patients with significant renal impairment (eGFR < 30 mL/min/1.73m²) due to risk of lactic acidosis.

CCMA Practice Test: Video 1 Answers (25 Questions)

A patient has both Medicare Part B and a Medigap policy.
Which payer is billed first?

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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

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