Corporate Governance and Ethical Standards Flashcards
6 cards from real CCM practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 6 Corporate Governance and Ethical Standards flashcards as text
A board's audit committee discovers that the CFO has been using a vendor-selection process that, while technically policy-compliant, consistently awards contracts to a firm in which a board member holds a minority passive interest — a relationship never formally disclosed. Under fiduciary duty analysis, which characterization is MOST accurate?
Answer: The board member's undisclosed interest creates a duty-of-loyalty conflict that implicates the entire board's oversight obligation regardless of process compliance
Fiduciary duty of loyalty requires board members to disclose any interest — even passive — that could influence decisions. The failure to disclose converts an otherwise compliant process into a conflicted one, and the full board's oversight obligation is implicated because the audit committee should have had mechanisms to surface such relationships. Process compliance is not a safe harbor when a material conflict is concealed.
Under the 'caremark' standard for board oversight liability, a shareholder derivative suit alleges that directors ignored repeated red-flag reports from the compliance function. Which single element is MOST dispositive in determining whether directors face personal liability?
Answer: Whether directors acted in bad faith by consciously disregarding a known duty to oversee compliance risks
Under Caremark and its progeny (Stone v. Ritter), the key test is whether directors acted in bad faith — specifically whether they 'consciously disregarded' a known duty to oversee. Mere negligence is insufficient; the plaintiff must show intentional dereliction. A code of ethics, compliance officer title, or materiality threshold are relevant context but not the dispositive legal element.
A multinational company's subsidiary in a high-risk jurisdiction makes a payment to a government official that is mandated by local law as a 'processing fee' and is openly listed on a government fee schedule. The payment is accurately recorded in the subsidiary's books. How should the corporate compliance team classify this under the FCPA?
Answer: The payment may qualify as an affirmative defense under the FCPA's 'local law' exception only if the written local law explicitly authorizes the payment to this category of official
The FCPA provides an affirmative defense — not an automatic exemption — when a payment is lawful under the written laws of the foreign official's country. The defense requires that the local law explicitly permit the payment; internal guidance, custom, or unofficial fee schedules are insufficient. Accurate recordkeeping is required but does not itself create a safe harbor from the anti-bribery provisions.
A public company's general counsel learns, through privileged internal investigation communications, that a senior vice president has submitted falsified expense reports over three years totaling $47,000. The board has not yet been informed. Which sequence of actions BEST reflects the compliance manager's ethical and legal obligations under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act and applicable bar rules?
Answer: Escalate the matter to the audit committee or full board as the 'appropriate authority' within the company, and advise that external disclosure may follow if the board fails to act
SOX Section 307 requires attorneys appearing before the SEC to report 'evidence of a material violation' up the ladder — first to the CLO/CEO, then to the audit committee or full board if the initial report is not acted upon. The obligation is internal escalation, not direct SEC reporting (which is a separate permissive disclosure). Privileged status does not nullify the up-the-ladder duty, and unilateral public disclosure without board action would be premature and potentially harmful.
A company's ethics hotline receives an anonymous tip alleging that the Chief Compliance Officer personally approved an improper related-party transaction. Under best-practice corporate governance, who should lead the investigation and why?
Answer: Outside counsel retained by and reporting directly to the independent members of the audit committee, to avoid any chain-of-command conflict
When the alleged wrongdoer is the CCO, the entire compliance reporting structure is conflicted. The audit committee — composed of independent directors — must commission and control the investigation. Using outside counsel reporting directly to those independent directors preserves both independence and privilege, and ensures findings are not filtered through any potentially compromised management layer. Internal audit reporting to the CFO and the CLO as management-side attorneys both present structural conflicts in this scenario.
A regulated financial institution's compliance program is deemed 'effective' by its primary regulator following an examination. Six months later, a significant compliance failure surfaces in a business unit that was examined. Under the U.S. DOJ's corporate enforcement policy, what is the PRIMARY relevance of the prior 'effective' finding to any subsequent enforcement action?
Answer: It is largely irrelevant because the DOJ evaluates whether the compliance program was effective at the time of the offense, not at the time of a prior examination
The DOJ's Evaluation of Corporate Compliance Programs guidance and the USSC Sentencing Guidelines focus on whether the compliance program was 'effective at the time of the offense' and is 'effective at the time of sentencing.' A prior regulatory 'effective' finding is useful context but does not create a safe harbor, shift the burden of proof, guarantee a declination, or mandate a specific fine reduction. A point-in-time regulatory blessing cannot immunize a company from liability for a subsequent failure.