Cambridge C1 Advanced (CAE) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: In CAE Writing, 'range' refers to which of the following?

The number of paragraphs used
The variety of vocabulary and grammatical structures (Correct answer)
Addressing all points in the task
Keeping within the word limit

Correct answer: The variety of vocabulary and grammatical structures

Examiners assess 'range' by looking at the variety and sophistication of both vocabulary choices and grammatical structures used.

Question 2: In CAE Use of English Part 1 (multiple choice cloze), what should candidates focus on?

Identifying which option collocates correctly, fits the grammar, and matches meaning (Correct answer)
Choosing the word with the most letters as it is likely more precise
Always choosing the first option that seems possible
Finding the word that sounds most natural in the gap

Correct answer: Identifying which option collocates correctly, fits the grammar, and matches meaning

Part 1 typically tests vocabulary in context — collocations, fixed phrases, and semantic precision — so all three factors must be checked for each answer.

Question 3: A CAE multiple-choice question asks about the author's use of irony in a paragraph. The author writes that a politician's plan was 'predictably original.' What is implied?

The plan was original and well-received
The plan was genuinely creative and surprising
The plan was original but expected to fail
The plan was repetitive and unoriginal despite claims otherwise (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The plan was repetitive and unoriginal despite claims otherwise

'Predictably original' is oxymoronic irony suggesting the supposed originality was so formulaic it was entirely predictable.

Question 4: Why is it important to speculate rather than state facts in CAE Speaking Part 2 photo tasks?

Photographs are ambiguous, so speculation shows language flexibility and avoids false claims (Correct answer)
Examiners specifically instruct candidates to avoid factual statements
Speculation is marked more generously than factual statements
Stating facts requires more advanced vocabulary

Correct answer: Photographs are ambiguous, so speculation shows language flexibility and avoids false claims

Since you cannot know the exact context of a photograph, speculating with phrases like 'It looks as if' or 'They might be' is more accurate and demonstrates a wider range of language.

Question 5: In a CAE gapped text, a sentence reads: 'It was only later that the full consequences became apparent.' What type of cohesive device does 'It was only later' primarily serve?

Temporal reference (Correct answer)
Contrast
Cause and effect
Exemplification

Correct answer: Temporal reference

'Only later' establishes a time reference that links events chronologically, making it a temporal cohesive device.

Question 6: Which sentence demonstrates an appropriate use of hedging language in academic writing?

The results suggest that regular exercise may contribute to improved mood. (Correct answer)
The results clearly show that we should all exercise more.
The results definitely prove that exercise improves mood.
The results are so obvious — exercise makes you feel better.

Correct answer: The results suggest that regular exercise may contribute to improved mood.

Hedging language like 'suggest' and 'may' is used in academic writing to express cautious claims rather than absolute statements.

Question 7: What is a common distractor technique used in CAE Listening multiple-choice questions?

Using only unfamiliar accents throughout
Including words from wrong options in the audio to mislead listeners (Correct answer)
Playing recordings at an unusually fast speed
Providing no pause between questions

Correct answer: Including words from wrong options in the audio to mislead listeners

Cambridge frequently mentions words from incorrect answer choices in the recording to distract candidates, so listeners must identify meaning rather than key words.

Question 8: Which of the following can assist you in keeping track of who is going to do what when you listen for a plan of action in a spoken English passage?

disregarding the remainder of the passage and simply paying attention to statements like "I will"
keeping an ear out for "course of action"
These items are all useless while considering a path of action.
Creating a flowchart or timeline (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Creating a flowchart or timeline

Creating a flowchart or timeline is an effective strategy for tracking a plan of action in a spoken English passage. This visual organization helps you map out the sequence of events, assigned tasks, and responsible individuals. By structuring the information, you can more easily follow complex plans and recall specific details about who is doing what and when.

Question 9: How does pronunciation affect a candidate's CAE Speaking score?

Clear intelligibility and natural stress/intonation patterns are rewarded regardless of accent (Correct answer)
Pronunciation is not assessed in the CAE Speaking paper
Only native-speaker accents are awarded full marks
Candidates must use British Received Pronunciation exclusively

Correct answer: Clear intelligibility and natural stress/intonation patterns are rewarded regardless of accent

CAE examiners assess whether the candidate's pronunciation is consistently clear and whether they use natural stress and intonation; any accent is acceptable as long as it does not impede understanding.

Question 10: What is the approximate word count required for each CAE Writing task?

100–150 words
300–350 words
180–220 words
220–260 words (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 220–260 words

Each CAE Writing task requires approximately 220–260 words, and answers significantly under or over this range lose marks.

Question 11: Why is it important to check spelling on the CAE answer sheet?

Examiners deduct marks for any word not in standard dictionaries
The answer sheet is scanned and only exact matches are accepted
Spelling mistakes are penalised by half a mark each
Misspelled words in certain parts (e.g., Listening Part 2) may not be accepted (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Misspelled words in certain parts (e.g., Listening Part 2) may not be accepted

In Listening Part 2 (sentence completion), answers must be spelled well enough to be recognisable; in other parts, spelling is also an assessed criterion.

Question 12: Choose the correct conditional form: 'If I _______ harder, I might have passed the exam.'

studied
would study
had studied (Correct answer)
study

Correct answer: had studied

This is a third conditional (past hypothetical): 'If I had studied harder, I might have passed' — past perfect in the if-clause, would/could/might + have + past participle in the main clause.

Question 13: It was a calm Sunday afternoon, the calm before the chaos of traffic jams, alarm clocks, and deadlines on Monday morning. Rebecca's elbow continued to rest on the arm of the sofa covered with tapestries when the clock struck three. She started to stroke the rough piping that ran along its seams with her fingertips. Her left foot's toes swept back and forth over the sheepskin rug's edges at the same time. Rebecca found comfort in this movement; it took her back to her childhood home, where she used to sit in the family sitting room and play with the fringes of a different kind of rug. Naturally, she continued to do it more since her mother would yell at her to stop. Suddenly, Rebecca smelled the glue Katy was using to create one of her artistic projects. Her daughter was perched on a cushion in the center of the room, appearing like an island amid a sea of felt-tip pens, sequins, cardboard cut-offs, and immaculate A4 sheets of paper that she had obediently stolen from her father's study. Really, Rebecca thought, she should be working at the kitchen table, but if my genius-daughter-at-work gets disturbed, I don't have the stomach for the tantrum that could ensue. Katy stood up every three minutes and fifty seconds to perform Kylie Minogue's rendition of "The Locomotion." Her father, who was stretched out on the other sofa, asked, "Why don't you listen to the CD all the way through, Katy?" "You'd like the other songs as well." "Nah, too boring." Rebecca gave David a quick glance before uttering, "I could do with something to perk me up." Her comments were followed by a yawn and a heavy sigh. She seemed to be hinting for the first time that he should get up and get her a cup of tea. She saw a letter promoting gym classes and a dieting club that had been delivered a week ago on the lamp table next to the sofa. She had placed it on the table as a prompt, or maybe to summon the same type of enchanted feeling that people have when they shell out a lot of money for a fancy gym membership but don't visit the facility more than twice every two months. She asked her spouse, "Have you seen this flyer?" She said, "I want to go lie down just thinking about working out." This time, she received no response. She made her third and most obvious attempt to grab a drink before getting dehydration-prone, "Who's going to make the tea then?" He got to his feet. "I guess it's my turn again," he said, disappearing into the kitchen as the winner, Rebecca, tucked herself even more into the couch. Now, Charlie, who had been dozing on the sheepskin rug, began babbling in his own way. This afternoon, he was trying to cover every vowel sound in the book, much like a vocalist warming up. From time to time, he would press his fingers against his mouth, producing a sound that resembled an extended 'w'. He was lying beneath a baby gym made of a red, white, and blue tubular frame with a top bar that suspended two clowns—one on a swing and the other in what Rebecca believed to be a pike. (She had earned her gold star medal in the trampoline a long time ago.) Charlie's cheerful babble turned into a grizzle as soon as he made eye contact with Rebecca. Rebecca, annoying everyone, including herself, questioned in a baby's voice, "Does Charlie want feeding again?" She knelt to pick up her son. "Mum, he doesn't want feeding again. You've only just fed him," Katy replied. She warmed through Charlie's favorite mush of potatoes and broccoli in the kitchen and brought it back through to be with Katy. "I'll try-just in case he's hungry." Rebecca fortunately saved face with her daughter and demonstrated that she didn't have to feel bad about sending her husband to make the tea because the baby was truly ready for a feed. That exact minute, David returned to the sitting room, her cup of Earl Grey, its subtle bergamot smell swaying in its saucer. With one hand, he held a sizable mug. Rebecca shot him a look of caution, daring him to place the cups somewhere else than on the oak blanket box that functioned as their coffee table. Already, two circles where hot drinks had been haphazardly plopped directly onto its surface marred its surface. When Charlie finally had enough, she would know that her tea would be just the right temperature to drink all at once, so she said, "Thanks. You're a treasure." and sat down to feed him. After a few minutes, David asked, "Where's Katy got to?" The sound of their elder child entering her bedroom through the curtain came from upstairs, and there was the answer. It resembled the beaded curtains that were popular when Rebecca was a young girl, but instead of beads, this one was made from an eye-catching assortment of shimmering plastic squares in shades of pink, purple, and silver. It was quite fitting, but she couldn't recall which of them had called it the "jingle-jangler." Rebecca is there when David initially exits the sitting room.

happy to have received her own way. (Correct answer)
She feels bad for being sluggish.
happy that her infant is awake.
shocked to hear her infant babbling.

Correct answer: happy to have received her own way.

After Rebecca's persistent hints for tea, David finally gets up to make it, and the narrator describes Rebecca as 'the winner, Rebecca, tucked herself even more into the couch.' This phrasing clearly indicates her satisfaction and triumph at successfully persuading her husband to make the tea, allowing her to remain comfortable and get her own way.

Question 14: Select the term that best summarizes this open-ended statement: _____________ trampolines ease pressure on the knee joints, they are excellent for low-impact exercise.

but
and
because (Correct answer)
or

Correct answer: because

The sentence establishes a cause-and-effect relationship: trampolines ease pressure on knee joints, which is the reason they are excellent for low-impact exercise. The conjunction 'because' correctly introduces the cause or reason for the subsequent statement. It logically connects the benefit of easing pressure to their suitability for a specific type of exercise.

Question 15: Choose the correct phrasal verb: 'She had to _______ the meeting until next week due to a conflict.'

put down
put up
put off (Correct answer)
put out

Correct answer: put off

'Put off' means to postpone or delay an event; the other phrasal verbs have different meanings (extinguish, accommodate, criticise).

Question 16: What should a CAE candidate do if they miss an answer during the first listening?

Signal to the examiner that they need the recording replayed
Stop listening to catch up and guess the missed answer
Leave a blank and move to the next question immediately
Continue listening and attempt the answer on the second listening (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Continue listening and attempt the answer on the second listening

Stopping to think about a missed answer risks missing further content; candidates should move forward and use the second listening to recover missed information.

Question 17: In CAE Listening Part 2, answers must fit grammatically into a sentence. A candidate hears 'the event was held in a sports complex.' Which answer fits the gap 'the event took place in a ___'?

complex sporting
event location
held sports
sports complex (Correct answer)

Correct answer: sports complex

The phrase 'sports complex' heard in the recording fills the gap naturally and grammatically, demonstrating that answers are often paraphrases of the audio.

Question 18: Which task type is ALWAYS compulsory in CAE Writing Part 1?

An essay (Correct answer)
A report
A formal letter
A proposal

Correct answer: An essay

Part 1 of the CAE Writing paper always requires candidates to write an essay based on input material.

Question 19: How long does the CAE Listening paper approximately last?

20 minutes
60 minutes
40 minutes (Correct answer)
30 minutes

Correct answer: 40 minutes

The CAE Listening paper takes approximately 40 minutes, including reading time, listening time, and transferring answers to the answer sheet.

Question 20: Why should CAE candidates avoid using contractions like 'don't' or 'it's' in formal writing tasks?

Contractions are informal and lower the register of formal texts (Correct answer)
They add unnecessary word count
Examiners cannot read them easily
They are grammatically incorrect in written English

Correct answer: Contractions are informal and lower the register of formal texts

Contractions belong to informal speech and writing; using them in formal reports, proposals, or essays signals insufficient control of register.

Question 21: Which sentence is grammatically correct?

Despite the rain, they continued playing. (Correct answer)
Despite of the rain, they continued playing.
Despite to the rain, they continued playing.
Despite that the rain, they continued playing.

Correct answer: Despite the rain, they continued playing.

'Despite' is a preposition followed directly by a noun phrase, not by 'of' or 'that'; 'despite the rain' is the correct structure.

Question 22: What is the meaning of the collocation 'to come to terms with something'?

To negotiate the conditions of a contract
To gradually accept a difficult situation (Correct answer)
To resolve a legal dispute
To understand the technical terminology of a subject

Correct answer: To gradually accept a difficult situation

'Come to terms with' is an idiomatic expression meaning to accept and begin to cope with something difficult or painful.

Question 23: What is the recommended length of a candidate's response in CAE Speaking Part 2?

Exactly two minutes
15–20 seconds
As long as the candidate wishes
Around one minute (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Around one minute

Part 2 individual turns last approximately one minute, after which the other candidate has 30 seconds to comment on the same photographs.

Question 24: In which of the following contexts would a formal register be LEAST appropriate?

A proposal submitted to a company director
An article for a professional journal
A text message to a close friend (Correct answer)
A letter of complaint to a local council

Correct answer: A text message to a close friend

Text messages to close friends typically use an informal register; formal language in this context would sound unnatural and stiff.

Question 25: In the CAE Writing paper, how many tasks must candidates complete?

Two tasks: one compulsory and one from a choice (Correct answer)
One task chosen from four options
One compulsory task only
Three tasks of equal weighting

Correct answer: Two tasks: one compulsory and one from a choice

CAE Writing has two parts: Part 1 is a compulsory essay, and Part 2 offers a choice of task types.

Question 26: Which of these phrases is most useful for politely disagreeing in CAE Speaking Part 3?

'You're completely wrong about that.'
'I see your point, but I tend to think...' (Correct answer)
'I don't know, maybe.'
'No, stop — my idea is better.'

Correct answer: 'I see your point, but I tend to think...'

Polite disagreement phrases like 'I see your point, but...' acknowledge the partner's contribution while introducing a contrasting view, which is valued in collaborative tasks.

Question 27: Which part of a friendly letter are examples of Yours Truly, Best Regards, and Warmly?

closing (Correct answer)
heading
signature
greeting

Correct answer: closing

'Yours Truly,' 'Best Regards,' and 'Warmly' are all common valedictions or complimentary closings used to end a letter, particularly a friendly or semi-formal one. They precede the sender's signature and serve to convey a polite farewell, marking the conclusion of the written communication.

Question 28: A candidate in CAE Speaking Part 3 only talks and never responds to their partner. Which assessment criterion will this most negatively affect?

Interactive communication (Correct answer)
Pronunciation
Lexical resource
Grammatical range and accuracy

Correct answer: Interactive communication

Failing to interact with and respond to a partner directly damages the interactive communication mark, which specifically assesses collaborative speaking skills.

Question 29: What is the primary purpose of CAE Speaking Part 3 (collaborative task)?

To test individual fluency through uninterrupted monologue
To role-play a scenario with the examiner as a third participant
To assess candidates' ability to negotiate, discuss, and reach a decision together (Correct answer)
To read aloud a prepared text for pronunciation marks

Correct answer: To assess candidates' ability to negotiate, discuss, and reach a decision together

Part 3 requires the two candidates to collaborate, exchange ideas, negotiate, and reach a shared decision based on visual prompts.

Question 30: In a CAE review, what should the writer primarily aim to do?

Give instructions on how to complete a task
Summarise a news article objectively
Describe and evaluate something for a specific audience (Correct answer)
Argue one side of a debate with evidence

Correct answer: Describe and evaluate something for a specific audience

A review describes and evaluates a product, book, film, or experience and is aimed at a defined readership.

Question 31: Which sentence correctly uses a mixed conditional?

If I had saved money, I would buy a car now. (Correct answer)
If I had saved money, I would have bought a car now.
If I saved money, I would have bought a car.
If I save money, I would buy a car.

Correct answer: If I had saved money, I would buy a car now.

A mixed conditional links a past condition ('if I had saved') with a present result ('I would buy now'), showing how a past action affects the current situation.

Question 32: A CAE candidate is writing a proposal. What is the main purpose of a proposal?

To describe a personal experience creatively
To summarise research findings neutrally
To suggest a plan of action and persuade the reader to accept it (Correct answer)
To narrate a past event in detail

Correct answer: To suggest a plan of action and persuade the reader to accept it

A proposal recommends a course of action, justifies it with reasoning, and aims to persuade the reader (e.g., a manager or committee) to approve it.

Question 33: Which sentence best demonstrates the use of a passive voice appropriate for a formal report?

We found that sales dropped sharply in Q3.
I noticed sales dropping really fast in Q3.
Sales just kind of dropped in Q3, we think.
Sales were found to have dropped sharply in Q3. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Sales were found to have dropped sharply in Q3.

The passive voice ('were found') removes personal reference and creates the impersonal, objective tone expected in formal reports.

Question 34: Identify the correct use of the passive voice: 'The report _______ by the committee last Monday.'

submitted
has submitted
submitting
was submitted (Correct answer)

Correct answer: was submitted

The past simple passive 'was submitted' is correct here: subject (the report) + was + past participle (submitted).

Question 35: In CAE Reading Part 6 (cross-text multiple matching), you must match opinions across four short texts. Reviewer A says a novel 'rewards patient readers,' while Reviewer B calls it 'impenetrable.' What is true?

Reviewer B found the novel more rewarding than Reviewer A
Both reviewers recommend the novel without reservation
Both reviewers agree the novel is difficult
Reviewer A is more positive about the novel's accessibility than Reviewer B (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reviewer A is more positive about the novel's accessibility than Reviewer B

'Rewards patient readers' implies difficulty but ultimate payoff, while 'impenetrable' suggests no reward, making A more positive about accessibility.

Question 36: When writing a formal report for CAE, which feature is most important?

Narrative story structure
A personal, conversational tone
Clear headings and impersonal language (Correct answer)
Rhetorical questions throughout

Correct answer: Clear headings and impersonal language

Formal reports use section headings, objective language, and recommendations written in an impersonal style.

Question 37: In CAE Speaking Part 4, what typically happens?

Candidates deliver a two-minute prepared talk
Candidates read a short text aloud for pronunciation assessment
Candidates return to their Part 2 photographs for further analysis
The interlocutor asks both candidates questions related to the themes of Part 3 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The interlocutor asks both candidates questions related to the themes of Part 3

Part 4 extends the discussion from Part 3, with the interlocutor asking both candidates broader, more abstract questions on the same topic area.

Question 38: In CAE Speaking Part 2, a candidate is comparing two photographs of celebrations. Which opening is most appropriate?

'I don't really like celebrations.'
'Both pictures show celebrations, but the first seems more formal while the second looks relaxed.' (Correct answer)
'Picture one is taken in a room. Picture two is outside.'
'The pictures have people in them who are happy.'

Correct answer: 'Both pictures show celebrations, but the first seems more formal while the second looks relaxed.'

A good Part 2 opening identifies what both images share and then highlights a key contrast, demonstrating comparison skills immediately.

Question 39: What is the best way to use process of elimination in CAE multiple choice questions?

Rule out options that are clearly contradicted by the text before choosing from remaining options (Correct answer)
Always remove option A first and choose from B, C, and D
Eliminate the longest answer first, as correct answers are usually short
Eliminate the option containing the most unfamiliar words

Correct answer: Rule out options that are clearly contradicted by the text before choosing from remaining options

Eliminating clearly wrong options reduces the choice to two or three, making it easier to identify the most strongly supported answer from the text.

Question 40: How many parts does the CAE Listening paper contain?

Five
Four (Correct answer)
Two
Three

Correct answer: Four

The CAE Listening paper consists of four parts, each testing different listening skills with different task formats.

Question 41: Researchers examining how toxic air affects our sleep believe there may be a connection between air pollution and restless nights. The amount of time participants spent sleeping in bed at night as opposed to being awake was examined in the study; this is known as sleep efficiency. The findings show that there is a correlation between a higher risk of experiencing poor sleep efficiency and increased exposure to nitrogen dioxide and PM 2.5s, which are tiny particles. Researchers speculate that this may be related to the physiological effects of air pollution. "Those pollutants can irritate your nose, sinuses, and back of your throat, which can cause some disruption in your sleep," stated Martha Billings, co-author of the study and assistant professor of medicine at the University of Washington. The study made use of nitrogen dioxide and PM2.5 level air pollution data that were collected over a five-year period in six US cities, including data that was collected close to the 1,863 participants' houses. Estimates of the pollution levels in the residence were then produced using the data. Using the data, the researchers divided the participants into quarters based on how well they were able to sleep: the top quarter had a sleep efficiency of roughly 93% or more, while the lowest quarter had a sleep efficiency of 88% or less. After that, the individuals were divided into four groups by the team according to how much each group had been exposed to air pollution. The team discovered that those who were exposed to the highest levels of air pollution over a five-year period were more likely to be in the bottom group for sleep efficiency than those exposed to the lowest levels, even after accounting for a wide range of factors like age, smoking status, and conditions like obstructive sleep apnea. More precisely, high levels of PM2.5s raised the odds of poor sleep efficiency by nearly 50%, whereas high levels of nitrogen dioxide increased the odds by nearly 60%. Increased amounts of time spent awake following sleep have also been associated with higher pollution levels. It's unclear, though, if the participants' reduced sleep quality was caused by the pollution per se or if other elements connected to pollution, like traffic noise, were at blame. Furthermore, a person's normal sleep pattern may not be reflected in data gathered from a single week of sleep. A link between pollution and sleep was not surprising, according to Roy Harrison, professor of environmental health at the University of Birmingham. Scott Weichenthal, an epidemiologist from McGill University in Canada who was not involved in the study, said the research did not prove that air pollution caused poor sleep, but he added that "there is certainly increasing evidence that air pollution affects our body in ways that we didn't appreciate before." "Previous studies have demonstrated links between exposure to nitrogen dioxide and impacts on a range of physiological and biochemical processes within the body, in addition to hospitalizations and death," the speaker stated. Therefore, it should not be shocking that these exposures have an impact on sleep patterns. In the second paragraph, the author tells us what references the researchers used to conduct their study.

The changes in the house's PM2.5 and nitrogen dioxide levels over time. (Correct answer)
The changes in the house's nitrogen dioxide levels throughout time.
The amount of PM2.5, nitrogen dioxide, and a variety of other pollutants in the home over time.
The PM2.5 concentrations in the home over time.

Correct answer: The changes in the house's PM2.5 and nitrogen dioxide levels over time.

The second paragraph states, 'The study made use of nitrogen dioxide and PM2.5 level air pollution data that were collected over a five-year period... close to the 1,863 participants' houses.' It then adds, 'Estimates of the pollution levels in the residence were then produced using the data.' This clearly indicates that the researchers used data on the changes in PM2.5 and nitrogen dioxide levels over time in the participants' homes.

Question 42: CAE Listening Part 4 is typically a longer interview or discussion. What is one key skill tested?

Understanding speakers' opinions, attitudes, and agreement/disagreement (Correct answer)
Spelling technical vocabulary correctly
Writing a summary of the conversation
Identifying the topic from background noise

Correct answer: Understanding speakers' opinions, attitudes, and agreement/disagreement

Part 4 tests the ability to understand attitudes, opinions, and the interplay between speakers in a longer, authentic-style conversation.

Question 43: Which word correctly fills the gap: 'The new software has several _______ features that the old version lacked'?

innovation
innovative (Correct answer)
innovatively
innovating

Correct answer: innovative

'Innovative' is the adjective form needed to modify the noun 'features'; 'innovation' is a noun, 'innovating' is a participle, and 'innovatively' is an adverb.

Question 44: What is the primary objective of the key word transformation questions on the CAE Reading section?

to finish a sentence that is synonymous with another sentence. (Correct answer)
to write phrases that have opposing meanings.
to demonstrate how different verb tenses differ.
to get rid of terms that aren't needed.

Correct answer: to finish a sentence that is synonymous with another sentence.

The primary objective of CAE Keyword Transformation questions is to assess your ability to rephrase a given sentence while preserving its original meaning, using a specific keyword. This task tests your grammatical range, vocabulary, and understanding of various sentence structures. You must demonstrate that you can express the same idea in a different, grammatically correct way.

Question 45: What does the word 'lucid' mean in 'Her lucid explanation made the concept easy to understand'?

Technical and specialised
Humorous and engaging
Long and detailed
Clear and easy to understand (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Clear and easy to understand

'Lucid' means clear, easy to understand, and logically expressed; it is often used to describe explanations, writing, or speech.

Question 46: Which of the following best describes the purpose of the preparation time given before each recording in CAE Listening?

To allow candidates to check their spelling
To read questions and predict the kind of information needed (Correct answer)
To give candidates time to rest between parts
To allow late candidates to enter the room

Correct answer: To read questions and predict the kind of information needed

Preparation time should be used to read the questions, understand the context, and predict vocabulary or information likely to appear in the recording.

Question 47: Will there be a change in the sound of the following two sentences read aloud in English? First sentence: His scarf was left at home. Sentence 2: Did he forget to bring his scarf?

Indeed, since the second sentence is a question at the end, its pitch will raise. (Correct answer)
Yes, since the first line is a statement, it will end in pitch.
No, things are the same.
Yes, since the second sentence is a question at the end, it will fall in pitch.

Correct answer: Indeed, since the second sentence is a question at the end, its pitch will raise.

In English, yes/no questions typically have a rising intonation at the end, signaling that a response is expected from the listener. Conversely, declarative statements usually end with a falling intonation. Therefore, the question 'Did he forget to bring his scarf?' will have a noticeably raised pitch at the end compared to the statement 'His scarf was left at home.'

Question 48: Which option correctly uses a reported speech structure? Original: 'I will finish the project by Friday,' she said.

She said she has finished the project by Friday.
She said she will finish the project by Friday.
She said she would finish the project by Friday. (Correct answer)
She said she finishes the project by Friday.

Correct answer: She said she would finish the project by Friday.

In reported speech, 'will' shifts back to 'would'; the tense backshift follows the sequence-of-tenses rule in indirect speech.

Question 49: In formal English, which word best replaces 'get' in 'We need to get a decision by Friday'?

take
find
grab
reach (Correct answer)

Correct answer: reach

'Reach a decision' is the standard formal collocation; 'get a decision' is informal and would be replaced by 'reach' in academic or professional writing.

Question 50: How many times is each recording played in the CAE Listening exam?

Three times
As many times as needed
Once only
Twice (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Twice

All recordings in the CAE Listening paper are played twice, giving candidates two opportunities to check and complete their answers.

Question 51: Which connective best signals an example in formal writing?

Nevertheless
Whereas
For instance (Correct answer)
Consequently

Correct answer: For instance

'For instance' (like 'for example') signals that a specific example is about to illustrate the preceding point.

Cambridge C1 Advanced (CAE) Exam

The Cambridge C1 Advanced (CAE) Exam is an internationally recognised English language certification at C1 level of the CEFR. It tests reading, use of English, writing, listening, and speaking across five papers, demonstrating advanced language ability for academic and professional purposes.

Questions

90 min

Time Limit

60%

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