Basic Life Support (BLS) Provider Exam (AHA) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which triad of signs is classically associated with opioid overdose?

Flushed skin, vomiting, and tachycardia
Hyperthermia, agitation, and dilated pupils
Bradycardia, hypertension, and seizures
Pinpoint pupils, unconsciousness, and respiratory depression (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pinpoint pupils, unconsciousness, and respiratory depression

The classic opioid toxidrome is pinpoint (miotic) pupils, decreased consciousness, and respiratory depression, which can lead to respiratory arrest.

Question 2: A lay rescuer finds an unresponsive person and calls 911. The dispatcher confirms suspected opioid overdose and informs the rescuer that naloxone is in a nearby kit. The victim is breathing 3 times per minute. What should the rescuer do NEXT?

Begin chest compressions immediately
Wait for EMS arrival without intervening
Place in recovery position and monitor
Administer naloxone and give rescue breaths (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Administer naloxone and give rescue breaths

With inadequate breathing (agonal respirations) and available naloxone, the rescuer should administer naloxone and provide rescue breathing to prevent respiratory arrest.

Question 3: During CPR on an adult with an advanced airway in place, what is the recommended ventilation rate?

1 breath every 6 seconds (10/min) (Correct answer)
2 breaths every 30 compressions
1 breath every 3 seconds (20/min)
1 breath every 2–3 seconds (20–30/min)

Correct answer: 1 breath every 6 seconds (10/min)

Once an advanced airway is in place during adult CPR, ventilations are delivered at 1 breath every 6 seconds (10/min) without pausing compressions.

Question 4: Which sign best indicates a SEVERE (complete) airway obstruction in an adult?

Loud, high-pitched stridor
Mild throat clearing
Inability to speak or make any sound (Correct answer)
Strong, productive cough

Correct answer: Inability to speak or make any sound

Inability to speak, cry, or make any sound indicates a complete airway obstruction requiring immediate intervention.

Question 5: What is 'post-cardiac arrest shock' primarily characterized by?

Hypotension with low cardiac output due to myocardial dysfunction (Correct answer)
Hypertension with tachycardia
Hypertension and bradycardia
Normal hemodynamics with fever only

Correct answer: Hypotension with low cardiac output due to myocardial dysfunction

Post-arrest shock involves global myocardial stunning causing low cardiac output and hypotension requiring vasopressor or inotropic support.

Question 6: A victim has a nitroglycerin patch on their chest. What should the rescuer do before placing AED pads?

Skip AED use and call for advanced help
Place the AED pad directly over the patch
Apply the AED to the back only
Remove the patch and wipe the area clean before applying pads (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Remove the patch and wipe the area clean before applying pads

Medication patches should be removed and the skin wiped clean before AED pad placement to prevent interference with pad adhesion and to avoid burns.

Question 7: In communities with strong Chain of Survival programs, survival rates from out-of-hospital cardiac arrest can reach:

Less than 5%
10–15% at most
Exactly 100%
40–50% (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 40–50%

Communities with robust bystander CPR, AED programs, and post-arrest care have demonstrated survival rates approaching 40–50% for shockable rhythms.

Question 8: Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the Chain of Survival concept?

To illustrate that survival depends on a sequence of time-sensitive interventions (Correct answer)
To demonstrate that only trained medical professionals can help cardiac arrest victims
To prioritize hospital-based care over bystander interventions
To show that defibrillation alone can save most cardiac arrest victims

Correct answer: To illustrate that survival depends on a sequence of time-sensitive interventions

The Chain of Survival emphasizes that each link must be performed promptly and in sequence to maximize the chance of survival.

Question 9: How deep should chest compressions be for an adult patient in cardiac arrest?

As deep as possible without restriction
At least 2 inches (5 cm), not exceeding 2.4 inches (6 cm) (Correct answer)
At least 1 inch (2.5 cm)
Exactly 3 inches (7.5 cm)

Correct answer: At least 2 inches (5 cm), not exceeding 2.4 inches (6 cm)

Adult chest compressions should be at least 2 inches (5 cm) deep but should not exceed 2.4 inches (6 cm) to avoid injury.

Question 10: Naloxone is ineffective for reversing overdose caused by which of the following substances?

Heroin
Methadone
Oxycodone
Benzodiazepines (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Benzodiazepines

Naloxone only blocks opioid receptors and has no effect on benzodiazepine-induced CNS/respiratory depression; those require supportive care or specific benzodiazepine antagonists.

Question 11: A coworker is eating lunch and suddenly cannot speak or cough. She nods 'yes' when you ask if she is choking. You should:

Give her water to try to wash the food down
Stand behind her and begin abdominal thrusts (Correct answer)
Call 911 immediately and do nothing else until they arrive
Encourage her to keep trying to cough on her own

Correct answer: Stand behind her and begin abdominal thrusts

Inability to speak or cough signals a severe obstruction requiring immediate abdominal thrusts — do not delay intervention.

Question 12: Which pulse is typically checked in an unresponsive adult during BLS?

Brachial
Carotid (Correct answer)
Radial
Femoral

Correct answer: Carotid

In an unresponsive adult, the carotid pulse is the most reliable and accessible pulse to check during BLS assessment. It is located in the neck, alongside the trachea. Checking for a carotid pulse helps determine if the heart is still circulating blood, guiding the decision to start or continue CPR.

Question 13: Which technique is used to provide breaths using a bag-valve-mask (BVM)?

Cross-finger technique
Double-hand tilt
Finger sweep
E-C clamp technique (Correct answer)

Correct answer: E-C clamp technique

The E-C clamp technique is the standard method for holding a bag-valve-mask (BVM) to a patient's face while providing breaths. This technique involves using the thumb and index finger to form a 'C' shape around the mask for a tight seal, while the remaining three fingers form an 'E' shape to lift the jaw and maintain an open airway. This ensures effective ventilation and minimizes air leakage.

Question 14: A victim is wearing a wet shirt. What should you do before applying AED pads?

Remove or cut the shirt and dry the chest before applying pads (Correct answer)
Use extra tape to hold the pads over the wet clothing
Apply pads over the wet clothing
Deliver the shock without pad attachment

Correct answer: Remove or cut the shirt and dry the chest before applying pads

Clothing and moisture must be removed from the chest to ensure proper pad adhesion and accurate rhythm analysis.

Question 15: After determining that the man is not responding, you call out for assistance. After establishing inattentiveness and yelling for assistance, what action should you take next?

place the patient in rescue position
get a defibrillator
begin CPR
activate the emergency response system (Correct answer)

Correct answer: activate the emergency response system

After determining that the victim is unresponsive and calling out for assistance, the next crucial step for a single rescuer is to activate the emergency response system (e.g., call 911 or activate a 'code blue'). This ensures that professional help is on the way. Once activated, the rescuer can then proceed with further assessment and interventions like checking for a pulse and breathing.

Question 16: What is the principle of 'patient autonomy'?

Following family member wishes over the patient's
Respecting the patient’s right to refuse treatment (Correct answer)
Making decisions for the patient if they cannot communicate
Providing treatment based on the healthcare provider’s judgment

Correct answer: Respecting the patient’s right to refuse treatment

Patient autonomy is a fundamental ethical principle in healthcare, asserting an individual's right to make decisions about their own medical care. This includes the right to refuse treatment, even if it is life-sustaining, provided they are competent to make such a decision. Healthcare providers must respect these choices, upholding the patient's self-determination.

Question 17: You deliver a shock and the victim shows signs of life (breathing, movement). What should you do?

Deliver a second shock to confirm the rhythm is stable
Place the victim in recovery position if breathing normally and leave AED attached (Correct answer)
Begin CPR regardless of signs of life
Remove AED pads and discontinue monitoring

Correct answer: Place the victim in recovery position if breathing normally and leave AED attached

If the victim resumes normal breathing and has signs of life, place them in the recovery position (if no suspected spinal injury) and keep AED attached until EMS arrives.

Question 18: Which of the following BEST explains why early defibrillation significantly improves survival from cardiac arrest?

It prevents brain injury by cooling the brain
It replaces the need for CPR entirely
Each minute without defibrillation in VF reduces survival by approximately 7-10% (Correct answer)
It restores breathing before circulation

Correct answer: Each minute without defibrillation in VF reduces survival by approximately 7-10%

Survival rates from VF decrease by approximately 7-10% for every minute without defibrillation, making rapid AED use critical to survival.

Question 19: Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator that rescue breaths are effective during BLS?

Increase in the patient's skin color
Visible chest rise with each breath (Correct answer)
A beeping sound from the bag-mask valve
Decrease in the patient's heart rate

Correct answer: Visible chest rise with each breath

Visible chest rise confirms air is entering the lungs rather than the stomach or leaking around the mask.

Question 20: A patient is resuscitated from ventricular fibrillation with no clear reversible cause identified in the field. What should be considered after stabilization?

Immediate discharge home
No further cardiac workup needed
Permanent pacemaker insertion
Evaluation for implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) placement (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Evaluation for implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) placement

Survivors of VF arrest without a clearly reversible cause are at high risk for recurrence and are candidates for ICD implantation.

Question 21: For a child victim (ages 1 year to puberty) in cardiac arrest with two rescuers present, what is the compression-to-ventilation ratio?

5:1
15:1
15:2 (Correct answer)
30:2

Correct answer: 15:2

Two rescuers performing CPR on a child use a 15:2 ratio, which allows more frequent ventilations appropriate for pediatric victims.

Question 22: Why is hyperoxia harmful in the post-resuscitation period?

It causes cardiac arrhythmias
It lowers blood pressure significantly
It causes hypercapnia
It worsens reperfusion injury through free radical production (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It worsens reperfusion injury through free radical production

Excess oxygen after ROSC generates reactive oxygen species that exacerbate reperfusion injury in ischemic tissues, particularly the brain.

Question 23: During a code, the team leader gives an order but no one responds. What should the leader do NEXT?

Assume the task is being handled and continue
Pause compressions to get everyone's attention
Direct the order to a specific team member by name (Correct answer)
Repeat the order louder to the whole team

Correct answer: Direct the order to a specific team member by name

Directing orders to a named individual ensures clear accountability and avoids the 'bystander effect' where everyone assumes someone else will act.

Question 24: What should you do if a victim has a hairy chest and you need to apply AED pads?

Apply pads to arms
Shave the area or use a second set of pads (Correct answer)
Move pads to the back
Do nothing

Correct answer: Shave the area or use a second set of pads

For an AED to deliver an effective shock, the pads must have firm, direct contact with the victim's skin. A hairy chest can prevent the pads from adhering properly, leading to poor electrical conduction and a failed shock. Quickly shaving the area or using a second set of pads to 'wax' away the hair ensures optimal pad-to-skin contact, which is vital for successful defibrillation.

Question 25: What is the recommended action if a victim vomits during CPR?

Increase the rate of rescue breaths to clear the airway
Turn the victim to the side, clear the airway, then resume CPR (Correct answer)
Continue CPR without interruption
Stop CPR and place the victim in the recovery position permanently

Correct answer: Turn the victim to the side, clear the airway, then resume CPR

The victim should be turned to the side to clear vomit from the airway, then CPR should be resumed as quickly as possible.

Question 26: Which of the following is an example of a clear role assignment?

You get the AED and apply the pads (Correct answer)
I’ll do compressions unless someone else wants to
Everyone checks the pulse
Let's all help however we can

Correct answer: You get the AED and apply the pads

A clear role assignment specifies exactly who is responsible for what task, eliminating ambiguity and ensuring efficient action. The command 'You get the AED and apply the pads' directly assigns a specific person to a specific, actionable task. This direct approach ensures tasks are completed promptly and prevents confusion or missed steps during an emergency.

Question 27: After successfully dislodging an object with the Heimlich maneuver, you should:

Recommend the patient be evaluated by medical personnel (Correct answer)
Send the patient home immediately if they feel fine
Resume normal activity since the airway is clear
Administer supplemental oxygen and discharge

Correct answer: Recommend the patient be evaluated by medical personnel

Even after successful relief, the patient should be evaluated by medical personnel because abdominal thrusts can cause internal injuries.

Basic Life Support (BLS) Provider Exam (AHA)

This exam certifies healthcare professionals and other personnel to recognize several life-threatening emergencies, provide CPR, use an AED, and relieve choking.

Questions

60 min

Time Limit

84%

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