Patient Assessment and Diagnosis Flashcards

A 45-year-old male presents with sudden onset of tearing chest pain radiating to the back. BP is 180/90 in the right arm and 140/70 in the left arm. Which diagnosis is most likely?

Answer: Aortic dissection

Unequal blood pressures between arms combined with tearing back pain are classic signs of aortic dissection.

When assessing a trauma patient using the primary survey, which action is performed FIRST?

Answer: Establish airway with C-spine precautions

The primary survey follows the ABCDE sequence, starting with airway management while maintaining cervical spine protection.

A patient with suspected carbon monoxide poisoning has a pulse oximetry reading of 99%. The nurse should recognize this as:

Answer: Falsely elevated because SpO2 cannot distinguish oxyhemoglobin from carboxyhemoglobin

Standard pulse oximetry cannot differentiate carboxyhemoglobin from oxyhemoglobin, giving a falsely normal reading in CO poisoning.

The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale assesses which three components?

Answer: Facial droop, arm drift, speech abnormality

The Cincinnati Stroke Scale evaluates facial droop, arm drift, and abnormal speech to rapidly identify stroke.

A 60-year-old female presents with right lower quadrant pain, fever of 38.9°C, and a positive Rovsing's sign. Which condition does Rovsing's sign suggest?

Answer: Appendicitis

Rovsing's sign — pain in the RLQ when the LLQ is palpated — is a classic physical finding suggestive of appendicitis.

Which finding on a 12-lead ECG is MOST consistent with hyperkalemia?

Answer: Peaked T waves

Peaked, tall, narrow T waves are the earliest ECG manifestation of hyperkalemia.

An unresponsive adult patient has a blood glucose of 28 mg/dL. No IV access is available. Which is the most appropriate intervention?

Answer: Glucagon 1 mg IM

When IV access is unavailable, glucagon 1 mg IM stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis to raise blood glucose in a hypoglycemic unresponsive patient.