BCACP Women's Health and Reproductive Pharmacology

Question 1

A 28-year-old woman with a history of migraine with aura presents requesting contraception. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate recommendation?

Accepted Answer

Progestin-only pill (minipill)

Answer

Migraine with aura is a WHO Medical Eligibility Criteria Category 4 (unacceptable health risk) for estrogen-containing contraceptives due to significantly increased stroke risk. Progestin-only methods (minipill, implant, hormonal IUD, DMPA) do not carry this risk and are safe alternatives. The patch and ring are combined hormonal methods and are equally contraindicated.

Question 2

A 62-year-old postmenopausal woman is diagnosed with osteoporosis (T-score –2.7 at the hip) and no prior fragility fractures. She has no contraindications to therapy. What is the preferred first-line pharmacological treatment?

Accepted Answer

Alendronate 70 mg orally once weekly

Answer

Oral bisphosphonates (alendronate or risedronate) are first-line therapy for postmenopausal osteoporosis per AACE/ACE and NOF guidelines due to efficacy, safety, and cost. Alendronate 70 mg weekly is a preferred regimen. Raloxifene is a second-line option with less anti-fracture data at non-vertebral sites. Zoledronic acid is preferred for patients who cannot tolerate oral bisphosphonates. Teriparatide is reserved for severe osteoporosis or treatment failure.

Question 3

A 51-year-old woman with vasomotor symptoms of menopause (hot flashes) asks about non-hormonal pharmacological options because she has a history of estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Which agent has the strongest evidence for this indication?

Accepted Answer

Paroxetine 7.5 mg once daily

Answer

Paroxetine 7.5 mg (Brisdelle) is the only FDA-approved non-hormonal treatment for moderate-to-severe vasomotor symptoms of menopause. SSRIs/SNRIs as a class have the best evidence among non-hormonal options. Gabapentin has evidence but is not FDA-approved for this indication. Clonidine has modest efficacy with significant side effects. Megestrol is a progestin and is generally avoided in hormone-sensitive cancers.

Question 4

A woman of childbearing age is starting valproic acid for epilepsy. Which intervention is MOST important for a pharmacist to address during preconception counseling?

Accepted Answer

Advise high-dose folic acid supplementation (4 mg/day) and discuss teratogenic risk

Answer

Valproic acid is a major teratogen (associated with neural tube defects, facial anomalies, and cognitive impairment — fetal valproate syndrome). High-dose folic acid (4–5 mg/day) is recommended preconceptionally to reduce neural tube defect risk. Women should be counseled on these risks and, if possible, switched to a safer alternative by their neurologist. However, the pharmacist's role is to ensure folic acid is prescribed and risks discussed — not to unilaterally discontinue therapy. Carbamazepine also carries teratogenic risk and is not necessarily safer.

Question 5

A 38-year-old woman with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) presents with irregular menses and difficulty conceiving. She has no diabetes but has insulin resistance. Which pharmacological agent is most commonly used off-label to improve menstrual regularity and insulin sensitivity in PCOS?

Accepted Answer

Metformin

Answer

Metformin is used off-label in PCOS to improve insulin sensitivity, reduce androgen levels, and restore menstrual regularity. It is especially beneficial in women with insulin resistance or impaired glucose tolerance. Clomiphene and letrozole are ovulation inducers used for fertility but do not address underlying insulin resistance. Spironolactone is used for hyperandrogenism symptoms (hirsutism, acne) but does not primarily restore cycles or improve insulin sensitivity.

BCACP - Board Certified Ambulatory Care Pharmacist Exam Practice Test

BCACP - Board Certified Ambulatory Care Pharmacist Exam Practice Test

BCACP Women's Health and Reproductive Pharmacology