ATSA (Air Traffic Standardized Aptitude Test) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A distance of at least 1,000 feet must exist between the two aircraft, according to the transferring controller.

Separation is required as the protected airspace for each does NOT overlap.
The controller must provide some type of separation. (Correct answer)
The transferring controller must make sure there are at least 1,000 feet between the two aircraft.
No separation is required as there is no conflict

Correct answer: The controller must provide some type of separation.

The fundamental responsibility of an air traffic controller is to ensure separation between aircraft to prevent conflicts. While the statement mentions a specific 1,000-foot requirement, the overarching duty is to provide *some type* of separation, which could also include lateral or longitudinal separation depending on the specific circumstances. Therefore, the broader principle that the controller must provide some type of separation is the most accurate conclusion.

Question 2: You notice a potential conflict in the flight path of two aircraft that your mentor, a senior controller, has just cleared. You believe it may be an oversight. Which of the following actions demonstrates the most desirable trait in this situation?

Quietly take over and correct the flight paths without alarming the senior controller.
Ask another colleague for their opinion before deciding whether to speak up to the mentor.
Wait to see if the senior controller notices the error on their own, as they are more experienced.
Immediately and clearly state your observation to your mentor, referencing the specific aircraft and potential conflict. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediately and clearly state your observation to your mentor, referencing the specific aircraft and potential conflict.

This scenario tests assertiveness and a commitment to safety over hierarchy. The best action is to communicate potential issues clearly and immediately, regardless of who made the potential error. This ensures the safety of the aircraft, which is the primary objective, and demonstrates effective teamwork and responsibility.

Question 3: An aircraft reports at FL240 but radar shows it at FL230. The controller should:

Accept radar as correct
Query the pilot to confirm altitude and check altimeter setting (Correct answer)
Accept the pilot's report as correct
Report the discrepancy to maintenance

Correct answer: Query the pilot to confirm altitude and check altimeter setting

A 1,000-foot discrepancy requires the controller to verify by questioning the pilot and checking altimeter settings before accepting either reading.

Question 4: An ATSA candidate is given a scenario with five tasks arriving simultaneously. The optimal first step is to:

Complete each task in the order it arrived
Ask for clarification on all tasks before starting
Begin with the easiest tasks to build momentum
Quickly assess which tasks are time-critical or safety-related and address those first (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Quickly assess which tasks are time-critical or safety-related and address those first

Rapid triage by urgency and safety impact is the hallmark of effective multitasking in ATC environments.

Question 5: On a radar display with a 40 nm range ring, an aircraft symbol appears halfway between the center and the 40 nm ring. What is the aircraft's approximate range from the antenna?

40 nm
10 nm
20 nm (Correct answer)
30 nm

Correct answer: 20 nm

Halfway to the 40 nm ring = 20 nm from the antenna.

Question 6: A radar separation standard requires 3 miles. Controller observes two targets 4 miles apart and converging at a combined rate of 2 miles per minute. How many minutes does the controller have to act?

30 seconds
1 minute (Correct answer)
0.5 minutes
2 minutes

Correct answer: 1 minute

The aircraft need to reach 3 miles apart; they currently have 4 miles, so 1 mile must be consumed before action is required: 1 mile ÷ 2 miles/min = 0.5 min — the answer is 30 seconds.

Question 7: When multiple pilots request weather deviations at the same time, the most effective strategy is to:

Assess each aircraft's position and heading, then issue individualized clearances in order of urgency (Correct answer)
Inform pilots that simultaneous deviations are not permitted
Have all aircraft hold until the weather clears
Issue identical clearances to all aircraft to save time

Correct answer: Assess each aircraft's position and heading, then issue individualized clearances in order of urgency

Individualized clearances based on each aircraft's position prevent conflicts during simultaneous weather deviations.

Question 8: A controller issues a traffic alert: 'Traffic, 2 o'clock, 5 miles, same altitude, northbound.' What does '2 o'clock' indicate?

The traffic is directly ahead
The traffic is behind and to the right
The traffic is slightly right of the aircraft's nose (Correct answer)
The traffic is at a 90-degree angle to the right

Correct answer: The traffic is slightly right of the aircraft's nose

The clock position '2 o'clock' indicates traffic slightly to the right of the aircraft's 12 o'clock nose position.

Question 9: A departure time is 1748Z and the estimated flight time is 2 hours 35 minutes. What is the estimated arrival time?

2023Z (Correct answer)
2123Z
1913Z
2013Z

Correct answer: 2023Z

1748 + 2h35m = 2023Z.

Question 10: An aircraft's transponder code changes from 3367 to 3376. Which two digit positions swapped?

Digits 2 and 3
Digits 3 and 4 (Correct answer)
Digits 1 and 4
Digits 1 and 2

Correct answer: Digits 3 and 4

Positions 3 and 4 changed from 6,7 to 7,6 — the last two digits were transposed.

Question 11: An order reads: 'Intersecting runway operations are permitted only when the tower supervisor determines that adequate separation can be maintained and all controllers involved are briefed.' A supervisor approves intersecting runway operations but briefs only two of the three involved controllers. Is the condition met?

No, because intersecting runway operations are never permitted
Yes, because the supervisor has the authority to determine adequacy
Yes, because a majority briefing is sufficient for approval
No, because all controllers involved must be briefed per the order (Correct answer)

Correct answer: No, because all controllers involved must be briefed per the order

The order requires that all controllers involved be briefed; briefing only two of three controllers does not satisfy this explicit requirement.

Question 12: A passage about conflict alerts reads: 'A conflict alert indicates predicted loss of separation within approximately 2 minutes. Controllers must evaluate and resolve the conflict before separation is lost.' Two aircraft trigger a conflict alert. The controller calculates they will conflict in 90 seconds. What does the passage require?

Evaluate and resolve the conflict before separation is actually lost (Correct answer)
Issue traffic alerts and let pilots exercise see-and-avoid
Wait until the aircraft are 1 minute apart before taking action
Transfer both aircraft to the adjacent sector immediately

Correct answer: Evaluate and resolve the conflict before separation is actually lost

The passage requires controllers to resolve the conflict before separation is lost, not after; with 90 seconds until conflict, immediate action is required.

Question 13: Four pilots check in on frequency in this order: Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta. If Charlie checks in before Bravo, and Delta checks in after Alpha but before Charlie, what is the correct order?

Alpha, Delta, Charlie, Bravo (Correct answer)
Delta, Alpha, Charlie, Bravo
Alpha, Charlie, Delta, Bravo
Alpha, Bravo, Delta, Charlie

Correct answer: Alpha, Delta, Charlie, Bravo

Delta is after Alpha but before Charlie; Charlie is before Bravo: Alpha → Delta → Charlie → Bravo.

Question 14: An aircraft traveling at 450 knots — how many nautical miles will it cover in 20 minutes?

90 nm
75 nm
150 nm (Correct answer)
225 nm

Correct answer: 150 nm

450 knots × (20/60 hr) = 450 × 0.333 = 150 nm.

Question 15: A NOTAM states: 'TFR EFFECTIVE 1400-1800 LOCAL. ALL ACFT EXCEPT THOSE WITH ATC AUTH PROHIBITED BELOW FL180 WITHIN 30NM.' What does a pilot without ATC authorization need to do to fly at 14,000 feet within 20 nautical miles of the TFR center during the effective period?

Stay out of the area entirely (Correct answer)
Fly at reduced airspeed through the area
File a flight plan before entering
Contact FSS for a weather briefing

Correct answer: Stay out of the area entirely

Without ATC authorization, all aircraft are prohibited below FL180 within 30NM during the effective time, so the pilot must avoid the area.

Question 16: A SIGMET is issued for which of the following?

Widespread dust storms below 3,000 feet
Light to moderate icing
Severe or extreme turbulence (Correct answer)
Moderate turbulence

Correct answer: Severe or extreme turbulence

SIGMETs cover significant meteorological conditions hazardous to all aircraft, including severe or extreme turbulence.

Question 17: An aircraft is flying a 090° heading (due east). The controller tells it to turn right to 180°. How many degrees does the aircraft turn?

45 degrees
270 degrees
180 degrees
90 degrees (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 90 degrees

From 090° turning right (clockwise) to 180° is a 90° turn.

Question 18: What is the typical distance at which a tower controller receives an aircraft coming in?

20 miles (Correct answer)
10 miles
25 miles
15 miles

Correct answer: 20 miles

A tower controller typically receives an aircraft coming in when it is approximately 20 miles from the airport. This handoff occurs after the approach controller has guided the aircraft closer to the airport and sequenced it into the landing pattern. The tower controller then assumes responsibility for issuing final approach instructions, landing clearance, and subsequent ground movement instructions.

Question 19: A passage about METARs reads: 'A SPECI is a special observation issued when conditions change significantly, such as when visibility drops below 3 miles or ceiling drops below 1,500 feet.' Visibility was 5 miles and drops to 2.5 miles. Should a SPECI be issued?

Yes, because visibility dropped below the 3-mile threshold for a SPECI (Correct answer)
No, because 2.5 miles is still above the IFR minimum of 1 mile
Only if the ceiling also drops below 1,500 feet simultaneously
Only if a pilot requests a special observation

Correct answer: Yes, because visibility dropped below the 3-mile threshold for a SPECI

The passage states a SPECI is issued when visibility drops below 3 miles; a drop to 2.5 miles crosses that threshold, triggering a SPECI regardless of ceiling conditions.

Question 20: Two aircraft are at the same altitude. Aircraft X is 20 nm east, Aircraft Y is 20 nm west, and both are heading toward each other at 300 knots each. How many minutes until they meet?

8 minutes
4 minutes
6 minutes
2 minutes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2 minutes

Closing speed is 600 knots over 40 nm: 40/600 × 60 ≈ 4 minutes — wait, they each travel 20 nm at combined 600 kt closure; time = 40 nm / 600 kt × 60 = 4 min.

Question 21: In ATC, what does the phrase 'resume own navigation' mean?

Switch to advisory frequency
Declare a navigation emergency
Climb to VFR altitude
Discontinue the radar vector and proceed as cleared or on flight plan (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Discontinue the radar vector and proceed as cleared or on flight plan

When a controller says 'resume own navigation,' the pilot should stop following radar headings and return to flying their filed route or last assigned routing.

Question 22: The ___________ shall decide the order of the final (within 2 miles of the airport) landing of the aircraft under its control.

approach controller
flight service station
control tower (Correct answer)
center controller

Correct answer: control tower

The control tower (specifically the Local Controller) is responsible for the active runway and the immediate airspace around the airport, including the final approach and landing sequence of aircraft. This is a fundamental function of Airport Traffic Control Towers (ATCTs) to ensure safe and efficient operations within the airport's immediate vicinity.

Question 23: In the ATSA scanning task, what is the primary risk of fixating on one aircraft for too long?

The fixated aircraft may receive too many instructions
Frequency congestion increases
Other aircraft may develop undetected conflicts (Correct answer)
The fixated aircraft's transponder may fail

Correct answer: Other aircraft may develop undetected conflicts

Fixation causes other aircraft to go unmonitored, allowing conflicts or violations to develop without detection.

Question 24: What is the minimum en route radar separation standard used by FAA controllers in domestic airspace?

3 nautical miles
1 nautical mile
10 nautical miles
5 nautical miles (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5 nautical miles

FAA Order 7110.65 specifies 5 nm as the minimum en route radar separation standard in domestic airspace.

Question 25: During a sector handoff, the incoming controller asks about multiple aircraft simultaneously. The best briefing approach is to:

Hand over the sector without briefing to avoid delaying the relief
Brief all aircraft at once to save time
Brief aircraft in priority order — conflicts, emergencies, then routine traffic (Correct answer)
Brief only the aircraft that are actively transmitting

Correct answer: Brief aircraft in priority order — conflicts, emergencies, then routine traffic

Briefing in priority order ensures the incoming controller is immediately aware of the most critical situations.

Question 26: A controller notices Aircraft A departed runway 28L two minutes ago and Aircraft B is cleared for immediate takeoff on the same runway. Minimum runway separation requires 3 minutes between departures. What should the controller do?

Issue an immediate takeoff clearance since 2 minutes is close enough
Instruct Aircraft B to line up and wait only
Hold Aircraft B short and wait one more minute (Correct answer)
Ask the pilot of Aircraft B if they are ready to go

Correct answer: Hold Aircraft B short and wait one more minute

Since only 2 of the required 3 minutes have elapsed, Aircraft B must hold short until the separation interval is met.

Question 27: When a controller notices their attention drifting during a slow traffic period, the best response is to:

Request an early break and leave the position unattended
Allow the drift since traffic is light
Use active scanning techniques to maintain situational awareness (Correct answer)
Discuss off-topic subjects to stay awake

Correct answer: Use active scanning techniques to maintain situational awareness

Active scanning maintains situational awareness during slow periods so the controller is ready for sudden changes.

Question 28: Two aircraft are at altitudes 22,000 ft and 24,000 ft. A third aircraft must maintain 1,000 ft above the lower and 1,000 ft below the higher. At what altitude must the third aircraft fly?

22,500 ft
24,500 ft
21,000 ft
23,000 ft (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 23,000 ft

1,000 ft above 22,000 ft is 23,000 ft, which is also 1,000 ft below 24,000 ft.

Question 29: An aircraft requests FL390 but is assigned FL370. How many feet below the requested altitude is the assigned altitude?

1,500 ft
2,000 ft (Correct answer)
2,500 ft
1,000 ft

Correct answer: 2,000 ft

FL390 is 39,000 ft and FL370 is 37,000 ft; the difference is 2,000 ft.

Question 30: A pilot reports a bird strike on departure and declares an emergency. The tower controller's first priority should be:

Clear the runway and provide emergency services notification (Correct answer)
Request a PIREP from other pilots in the area
Issue a new departure clearance to the next aircraft
Contact the FAA Flight Standards office

Correct answer: Clear the runway and provide emergency services notification

The immediate priority is runway safety and alerting emergency services to support the affected aircraft.

Question 31: Controller A hands off Aircraft N to Controller B with 15 miles of radar separation. The minimum required for that handoff is 5 miles. Is this handoff compliant?

No, the separation is too large
No, additional verbal coordination is required
Yes, it exceeds the minimum requirement (Correct answer)
Yes, but only if Aircraft N is at cruise altitude

Correct answer: Yes, it exceeds the minimum requirement

15 miles of separation exceeds the 5-mile minimum, so the handoff is compliant.

Question 32: Given S=5, T=S+5, U=T×S. What is U-S?

50
45 (Correct answer)
40
55

Correct answer: 45

T = 10, U = 10 × 5 = 50, U - S = 50 - 5 = 45.

Question 33: In ATC, what does 'LAHSO' stand for?

Low Altitude High Speed Operations
Local Airport Holding Sequence Order
Landing Aid Horizontal Separation Override
Land and Hold Short Operations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Land and Hold Short Operations

LAHSO (Land and Hold Short Operations) allows aircraft to land and stop before a specific intersection or crossing runway to increase airport capacity.

Question 34: During a high-traffic period, a colleague suggests a minor deviation from a standard operating procedure, arguing it will speed up the workflow without compromising safety. What is the most appropriate response?

Politely decline and state the importance of adhering to established procedures, especially during busy times. (Correct answer)
Agree to the deviation to maintain a good working relationship and improve efficiency.
Try the deviation once to see if it works and then decide whether to continue using it.
Report your colleague's suggestion to a supervisor immediately without discussing it further.

Correct answer: Politely decline and state the importance of adhering to established procedures, especially during busy times.

The correct answer emphasizes rule adherence and conscientiousness, which are critical personality traits for an Air Traffic Controller. Safety is paramount and is maintained by strictly following proven, standardized procedures. Deviating from them, especially under pressure, introduces unacceptable risk.

Question 35: At a non-towered airport, Aircraft A is on a 3-mile final and Aircraft B is on a 5-mile final on the same runway. Aircraft A is at 90 knots; Aircraft B is at 130 knots. Is a conflict likely?

Yes, but only if Aircraft B is heavier
No, because non-towered airports have no separation
No, Aircraft A will land well before Aircraft B arrives
Yes, Aircraft B will close on Aircraft A before touchdown (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Yes, Aircraft B will close on Aircraft A before touchdown

Aircraft B is closing at 40 knots on Aircraft A; with only a 2-mile gap and higher speed, it will close significantly before Aircraft A clears the runway.

Question 36: Which of the clearance items mentioned by a controller is NOT included?

departure speed (Correct answer)
route of flight
clearance limit
aircraft ID

Correct answer: departure speed

Air Traffic Control (ATC) clearances typically include essential information such as the aircraft's identification, the clearance limit (destination or point), the full route of flight, and assigned altitudes. While ATC may issue specific speed restrictions during certain phases of flight, a general 'departure speed' is not a standard, explicit item included in a basic clearance. Pilots are expected to maintain appropriate speeds unless otherwise directed by ATC.

Question 37: An aircraft at FL280 must descend to 10,000 feet MSL at a rate of 2,000 feet per minute. How long will the descent take?

6 minutes
9 minutes (Correct answer)
15 minutes
12 minutes

Correct answer: 9 minutes

Altitude change: 28,000 – 10,000 = 18,000 ft; 18,000 ÷ 2,000 ft/min = 9 minutes.

Question 38: You are told A=9, B=3, C=A÷B. What is C?

3 (Correct answer)
6
4
2

Correct answer: 3

C = A ÷ B = 9 ÷ 3 = 3.

Question 39: During the ATSA scenario, you notice that Aircraft A's groundspeed has suddenly increased by 80 knots. This most likely indicates:

The aircraft has entered a strong tailwind or changed thrust setting (Correct answer)
The pilot filed a wrong flight plan
The aircraft is on a curved path
An error in the radar system

Correct answer: The aircraft has entered a strong tailwind or changed thrust setting

A sudden large groundspeed increase typically indicates a significant tailwind component or a thrust change by the pilot.

Question 40: A sector receives 12 aircraft per hour. The controller can handle a maximum of 18. At what point (in minutes) does the sector reach capacity if 6 aircraft are already present at the start?

90 min
60 min (Correct answer)
45 min
30 min

Correct answer: 60 min

Need 12 more aircraft to reach 18; at 12/hr rate, 12 aircraft arrive in 60 minutes.

Question 41: A radar scope is oriented north-up. An aircraft in the lower-right quadrant has a leader line pointing toward the upper-left. In what direction is the aircraft traveling?

Southwest
Northwest (Correct answer)
Southeast
Northeast

Correct answer: Northwest

Upper-left on a north-up display represents northwest.

Question 42: A controller notices that three aircraft are equidistant from a VOR, forming a triangle. If one aircraft is due north at 20 nm and another is due east at 20 nm, where is the third aircraft to complete an equilateral triangle?

South-southeast at about 20 nm (Correct answer)
Southeast at about 20 nm
Due south at 20 nm
Southwest at about 20 nm

Correct answer: South-southeast at about 20 nm

An equilateral triangle with one vertex north and one east would place the third vertex roughly south-southeast to maintain equal 20 nm sides.

Question 43: An aircraft travels 240 nautical miles in 40 minutes. At the same speed, how long will it take to travel 360 nautical miles?

75 min
50 min
60 min (Correct answer)
55 min

Correct answer: 60 min

Speed = 240/40 = 6 nm/min; time for 360 nm = 360/6 = 60 minutes.

Question 44: A controller is feeling fatigued midway through a shift. The most appropriate action is to:

Reduce communication with pilots to conserve energy
Inform the supervisor and request a break or position relief (Correct answer)
Push through without informing anyone to avoid appearing weak
Consume stimulants to maintain alertness

Correct answer: Inform the supervisor and request a break or position relief

Reporting fatigue to supervisors is a safety-critical behavior that prevents errors.

Question 45: When asked to perform a task outside your area of expertise, the most professionally appropriate response is to:

Delegate it to a less senior colleague
Acknowledge your limitations and seek appropriate guidance or training (Correct answer)
Decline and refuse to engage with the task
Attempt it confidently without disclosing your limitations

Correct answer: Acknowledge your limitations and seek appropriate guidance or training

Recognizing and communicating limitations is a hallmark of professional self-awareness and safety culture.

Question 46: The primary challenge introduced by the 'eye' symbol in the Spatial and Visual Relationships test is the requirement to:

predict the aircraft's future path.
make faster calculations.
switch your mental point of view. (Correct answer)
identify the type of aircraft.

Correct answer: switch your mental point of view.

The core function of the 'eye' symbol is to signal a shift in perspective from the internal cockpit view to an external observer's view. This requires the test-taker to mentally switch their point of view to correctly assess the relative positions of the aircraft.

Question 47: Yes/No: Aircraft making initial contact: Arrival Tower Ground Tower Departure Approach Center Ground

Yes (Correct answer)
No

Correct answer: Yes

This question lists various air traffic control facilities (Arrival, Tower, Ground, Departure, Approach, Center) that aircraft typically make initial contact with during different phases of flight. The 'Yes' answer confirms that this list accurately represents the types of facilities an aircraft would contact initially depending on its operational phase (e.g., taxi, takeoff, en route, approach, landing).

Question 48: How should a controller respond when they disagree with a supervisor's decision during an active operation?

Refuse to comply until the disagreement is resolved
Immediately override the supervisor's decision
Notify pilots of the disagreement
Voice concerns calmly through appropriate channels after ensuring safety (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Voice concerns calmly through appropriate channels after ensuring safety

Raising concerns through proper channels after ensuring immediate safety respects authority while maintaining professional integrity.

Question 49: A memo reads: 'Runway incursion risk increases when multiple aircraft are cleared onto the same runway environment simultaneously. Clearances must be coordinated and communicated clearly.' What is the primary risk identified?

Simultaneous runway occupancy by more than one aircraft (Correct answer)
Pilot workload from complex clearance phraseology
Excessive fuel burn from holding patterns
Frequency congestion during busy periods

Correct answer: Simultaneous runway occupancy by more than one aircraft

The memo specifically identifies multiple aircraft cleared onto the same runway environment as the source of increased runway incursion risk.

Question 50: Sector A has twice as many aircraft as Sector B. Sector B has 5 more aircraft than Sector C. If Sector C has 7 aircraft, how many total aircraft are in all three sectors?

41 (Correct answer)
43
36
47

Correct answer: 41

Sector C = 7; Sector B = 7 + 5 = 12; Sector A = 12 × 2 = 24; total = 7 + 12 + 24 = 43 — recalculate: 43, so answer is 43.

Question 51: What background is NOT a typical prerequisite for applying to the FAA Air Traffic Controller hiring program?

Completion of an FAA-approved AT-CTI collegiate program
Three years of progressively responsible work experience
Prior military ATC experience
A commercial pilot license with 1,500 flight hours (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A commercial pilot license with 1,500 flight hours

The FAA does not require a commercial pilot license; eligibility pathways include AT-CTI graduates, veterans with ATC experience, or off-the-street applicants with qualifying experience.

Question 52: What is the purpose of a NOTAM in aviation operations?

To document near-miss incidents
To record controller shift schedules
To list approved aircraft registration numbers
To notify airmen of temporary changes or hazards affecting flight operations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To notify airmen of temporary changes or hazards affecting flight operations

NOTAMs (Notices to Air Missions) communicate time-critical aeronautical information about temporary conditions that may affect flight safety.

Question 53: Two aircraft are on parallel runways 1,200 ft apart. A simultaneous approach is in progress. One aircraft goes missed approach and turns toward the other runway's extended centerline. What is the primary concern?

Runway incursion on the active runway
Loss of communication with the missed approach aircraft
Wake turbulence from the landing aircraft
Loss of separation between the missed approach aircraft and the landing aircraft (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Loss of separation between the missed approach aircraft and the landing aircraft

A missed approach aircraft turning toward the other final can conflict with traffic still on approach to the parallel runway.

Question 54: A regulation excerpt states: 'No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has filed an IFR flight plan and received an appropriate ATC clearance.' A pilot is flying IFR in Class E airspace without having filed a flight plan. What has the pilot violated?

No regulation, as IFR flight plans are only required in Class B airspace
A mandatory regulation requiring both a filed plan and ATC clearance for IFR in controlled airspace (Correct answer)
Only an advisory rule, since Class E is uncontrolled
Only the clearance requirement, since Class E flight plans are optional

Correct answer: A mandatory regulation requiring both a filed plan and ATC clearance for IFR in controlled airspace

Class E is controlled airspace, and the regulation explicitly requires both a filed IFR flight plan and an ATC clearance to operate IFR within it.

Question 55: Which type of radar display shows weather returns overlaid on aircraft targets?

PAR (Precision Approach Radar)
ARSR
ASR with weather mode (Correct answer)
ILS monitor

Correct answer: ASR with weather mode

Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR) can display weather returns in a weather mode, allowing controllers to see precipitation areas alongside aircraft targets.

Question 56: An aircraft calls with an unfamiliar callsign. The controller cannot match it to any filed flight plan. The appropriate action is to:

Transfer the aircraft to an adjacent sector immediately
Instruct the aircraft to squawk 7700
Ignore the call until the aircraft identifies itself further
Ask the aircraft to confirm its callsign and departure point (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ask the aircraft to confirm its callsign and departure point

Requesting confirmation of callsign and departure allows the controller to identify the aircraft and verify its clearance.

Question 57: No VFR flight may enter Class A airspace. Aircraft N88TQ entered Class A airspace. What must be true?

N88TQ is not VFR (Correct answer)
N88TQ is military
N88TQ has a waiver
N88TQ is VFR

Correct answer: N88TQ is not VFR

If no VFR flight may enter Class A, and N88TQ entered, it logically cannot be operating VFR.

Question 58: At a control tower, the following staffing rules apply: 1) If the weather is below VFR minimums, then Sam must work the radar position. 2) If Sam works the radar position, then Maria must assist. 3) If Maria assists, then Tom cannot be on break. The weather is currently below VFR minimums. Which of the following statements must be true?

Tom is on break.
Sam is not working radar.
Tom cannot be on break. (Correct answer)
Maria is not assisting.

Correct answer: Tom cannot be on break.

The weather is below VFR, which triggers the first rule, meaning Sam must work radar. This triggers the second rule, meaning Maria must assist. This, in turn, triggers the third rule, which concludes that Tom cannot be on break. The logic flows directly from the initial condition through all three rules.

Question 59: Imagine you are in the large aircraft's cockpit, looking forward. The small aircraft is flying parallel to you, but it is positioned exactly on your left wing. If you were to switch to the 'eye' perspective, located directly above both aircraft, where would the small aircraft be relative to the large aircraft?

In front
Below
To the right
To the left (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To the left

The question requires a mental shift in perspective. From the cockpit, the plane is on the left. An 'eye' perspective from directly above does not change the left-right orientation. The small aircraft would still be observed to the left of the large aircraft.

Question 60: Would an aircraft go to departure, approach, or tower if it missed the approach and had to go around?

Approach
None of the above
Departure (Correct answer)
Tower

Correct answer: Departure

If an aircraft misses an approach and has to execute a go-around, it is typically directed to the Departure controller. A go-around essentially initiates a new departure sequence, requiring the aircraft to climb and re-enter the flow of outbound traffic. The Departure controller is responsible for managing aircraft climbing out of the airport's airspace and will either re-sequence the aircraft for another approach or direct it to an alternate plan.

Question 61: A controller issues a heading of 270° to separate two aircraft. Aircraft A is on 090° and Aircraft B is on 270°. What is the relationship between these headings?

They are perpendicular
They are parallel and same direction
They are reciprocal (opposite) headings (Correct answer)
They differ by 90°

Correct answer: They are reciprocal (opposite) headings

090° and 270° are exactly 180° apart, making them reciprocal (opposite) headings.

Question 62: If you were in the tower, which are the EXCLUSIVE FIVE ATC positions that you would direct an aircraft to?

Ground, Departure, & Approach, Clearance Delivery, Tower (Correct answer)
None of the above
Ground, Clearance Delivery, & Tower, Center, Ocean
Departure, Approach, & Tower, Center, Airspace

Correct answer: Ground, Departure, & Approach, Clearance Delivery, Tower

The five exclusive ATC positions that a tower controller would directly hand off an aircraft to are Ground, Departure, Approach, Clearance Delivery, and Tower (for internal coordination). These positions cover the various stages of flight within and immediately surrounding an airport, from initial clearance and taxi to takeoff and approach. Center control manages en route traffic, which is typically outside the direct handoff scope of a local tower controller.

Question 63: If all IFR flights require a clearance, and Flight AAL123 did not receive a clearance, what can be concluded?

AAL123 is VFR (Correct answer)
AAL123 is delayed
AAL123 is cancelled
AAL123 is IFR

Correct answer: AAL123 is VFR

If all IFR flights require clearance and AAL123 has none, it logically cannot be an IFR flight, so it must be VFR.

Question 64: A controller remembers six aircraft altitudes: 7,000; 9,000; 8,500; 10,000; 6,500; 11,000. How many are above 8,000 ft?

5
3 (Correct answer)
2
4

Correct answer: 3

Altitudes above 8,000 ft: 9,000; 8,500; 10,000; 11,000 — that is 4 aircraft.

Question 65: Memorize: X=30, Y=X÷5, Z=Y+X. What is Z?

36 (Correct answer)
35
38
37

Correct answer: 36

Y = 30 ÷ 5 = 6, then Z = 6 + 30 = 36.

Question 66: A radar display updates every 4 seconds. An aircraft travels 0.3 nautical miles per sweep. What is its approximate groundspeed in knots?

240 knots
270 knots (Correct answer)
300 knots
320 knots

Correct answer: 270 knots

0.3 NM per 4 seconds equals 0.075 NM/sec × 3,600 sec/hr = 270 knots groundspeed.

Question 67: When an aircraft declares an emergency, what squawk code should the pilot set on the transponder?

7000
7700 (Correct answer)
7500
7600

Correct answer: 7700

Squawk 7700 is the universal emergency code indicating general distress.

Question 68: A controller is sequencing departures with the following constraints: 1) Flight 50 must depart sometime before Flight 70. 2) Flight 60 must depart immediately after Flight 80. 3) Flight 90 must depart last. Which of the following is a valid departure sequence?

50, 80, 60, 70, 90 (Correct answer)
70, 50, 80, 60, 90
80, 60, 90, 50, 70
80, 50, 60, 70, 90

Correct answer: 50, 80, 60, 70, 90

This sequence is valid because Flight 50 departs before Flight 70, Flight 60 departs immediately after Flight 80, and Flight 90 is the last to depart, satisfying all three rules.

Question 69: An unexpected, severe weather event rapidly develops over the airport, causing significant disruptions and requiring immediate rerouting of multiple aircraft. Which personality trait is MOST crucial for a controller to exhibit in this moment?

Composure; maintaining calmness to make rapid, logical decisions under pressure. (Correct answer)
Independence; making all decisions without consulting the team.
Perfectionism; spending extra time to make sure the first rerouting is flawless before addressing others.
Competitiveness; trying to handle more aircraft than other controllers.

Correct answer: Composure; maintaining calmness to make rapid, logical decisions under pressure.

Composure, or the ability to remain calm under pressure, is the most critical trait in a rapidly changing, high-stress situation. This allows the controller to think clearly, prioritize tasks effectively, and communicate instructions without panic, ensuring the continued safety of all aircraft.

Question 70: Arriving aircraft reported leaving 8,000 for 4,000 and another reported overflying the airport VORTAC at 6,000 (both estimating a common fix at 9 minutes apart); these reports were from aircraft that have reported leaving the airport.

A minimum of 1,000 feet must separate the two planes, according to the transferring controller.
As the protected airspace for each does NOT intersect, separation is necessary.
No separation is required as there is no conflict.
The controller must provide some type of separation. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The controller must provide some type of separation.

This scenario describes two aircraft in controlled airspace with potentially conflicting altitudes and positions, even if they are estimating a common fix 9 minutes apart. One is descending, and the other is at a specific altitude. Regardless of the specifics, the fundamental responsibility of an air traffic controller is to ensure separation between all aircraft under their control to prevent collisions. Therefore, the controller must provide some type of separation.

Question 71: A controller who volunteers for additional training on new equipment demonstrates which PPI trait?

Proactive growth orientation and openness to experience (Correct answer)
Overconfidence in current skills
Competitive behavior toward peers
Need for external validation

Correct answer: Proactive growth orientation and openness to experience

Seeking additional training reflects openness to experience and a proactive commitment to professional development.

Question 72: You are given four codes to remember: 3315, 3351, 3135, 3153. Which code has the digit 5 in position 3?

3135
3153
3315
3351 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 3351

In 3351, the digits are 3,3,5,1 — position 3 is 5.

Question 73: Two aircraft are on converging courses at the same altitude. Aircraft A is to the left of Aircraft B. Under right-of-way rules, which aircraft must give way?

Aircraft A gives way to Aircraft B
Both aircraft must turn right
Aircraft B gives way to Aircraft A (Correct answer)
The slower aircraft gives way

Correct answer: Aircraft B gives way to Aircraft A

The aircraft on the left (Aircraft A) has the right-of-way, so Aircraft B must give way by turning right.

Question 74: During an ATSA simulation, a controller observes that two targets are 2.5 miles apart and closing. Standard separation is 3 miles. The correct action is to:

Increase radar range to see more detail
Ask the pilot what they plan to do
Wait and see if they diverge naturally
Issue an immediate turn instruction to one aircraft (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Issue an immediate turn instruction to one aircraft

Separation has already been violated; an immediate vector instruction is required to restore the required 3-mile separation.

Question 75: A passage about ATIS reads: 'ATIS is updated whenever any official weather observation is issued, or when certain conditions change such as the active runway or approach in use.' An ATIS is recorded at 0850. A new runway is activated at 0920, but no new weather observation has been issued. Should the ATIS be updated?

Only if a pilot requests updated information
Only if the tower supervisor authorizes the update
No, because no new weather observation has been issued
Yes, because a runway change requires a new ATIS recording (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Yes, because a runway change requires a new ATIS recording

The passage states ATIS is updated when certain conditions change, including the active runway, regardless of whether a new weather observation has been issued.

Question 76: The statement "have numbers" in radio communications does not necessarily mean that the pilot has access to the data provided in the most recent ATIS broadcast.

True (Correct answer)
False

Correct answer: True

While 'have numbers' often implies a pilot has received the ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service) broadcast, it specifically refers to having the *current altimeter setting*. It does not guarantee that the pilot has listened to or fully comprehended all other information (like runway in use, weather, NOTAMs) contained in the full ATIS broadcast.

Question 77: Aircraft A is at your 3 o'clock position moving toward your 9 o'clock. Aircraft B is at your 9 o'clock moving toward your 3 o'clock. Describe their relative paths.

They are on parallel tracks
They are in a crossing pattern
They are diverging
They are on a head-on collision course (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They are on a head-on collision course

Aircraft moving in directly opposite directions along the same east-west line are on a head-on course.

Question 78: What is the squawk code assigned to all aircraft experiencing an in-flight emergency?

7600
7500
7700 (Correct answer)
1200

Correct answer: 7700

Squawk 7700 is the universal emergency transponder code that alerts ATC radar systems and controllers to an aircraft in distress.

Question 79: What color are the obstruction lights required on towers over 200 feet AGL in the United States?

Green steady
White strobe only
Red (steady or flashing) (Correct answer)
Amber flashing

Correct answer: Red (steady or flashing)

FAA regulations require red obstruction lighting (steady or flashing red) on towers exceeding 200 feet AGL to warn pilots of hazards.

Question 80: A conflict alert (CA) is triggered when the computer predicts a loss of separation within how many minutes?

3 minutes
2 minutes (Correct answer)
1 minute
5 minutes

Correct answer: 2 minutes

The Conflict Alert (CA) automation typically predicts a loss of separation within 2 minutes to give controllers sufficient response time.

Question 81: An image displays a large aircraft and a small aircraft. An 'eye' symbol is present at the top of the screen, indicating an external viewpoint looking at the large aircraft. The small aircraft is physically located on the left side of the large aircraft. A prompt asks: 'Is the small aircraft to the RIGHT?' What is the correct response?

The prompt is invalid
Yes
Cannot be determined
No (Correct answer)

Correct answer: No

The presence of the 'eye' symbol shifts the viewpoint to that of an external observer, like from a control tower. If the small aircraft is on the physical left of the large aircraft, an external observer would also see it on the left. The prompt asks if it is to the RIGHT, which is false. Therefore, the correct response is 'No'.

Question 82: What does the acronym 'ATIS' stand for in aviation?

Automatic Terminal Information Service (Correct answer)
Aerodrome Traffic Instruction Summary
Advanced Traffic Identification System
Air Traffic Information Service

Correct answer: Automatic Terminal Information Service

ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service) is a continuous broadcast of recorded non-control information to reduce controller workload.

Question 83: Which document primarily governs air traffic control procedures in the United States?

FAA Order 7110.65 (Air Traffic Control) (Correct answer)
14 CFR Part 61
ICAO Annex 11 without modification
AIM Chapter 5 only

Correct answer: FAA Order 7110.65 (Air Traffic Control)

FAA Order 7110.65, 'Air Traffic Control,' is the primary reference that establishes procedures and phraseology for U.S. ATC operations.

Question 84: What phrase must a pilot say when acknowledging a hold-short instruction at a runway?

Affirmative
Roger, hold short
Read back the full instruction including the hold-short point (Correct answer)
Wilco

Correct answer: Read back the full instruction including the hold-short point

FAA regulations require pilots to read back hold-short instructions in full, including the specific hold-short point, to confirm understanding.

Question 85: A controller who becomes defensive when a safety concern is raised about their work is exhibiting:

A barrier to effective safety culture (Correct answer)
Professional assertiveness
Strong personal confidence
Appropriate boundary-setting

Correct answer: A barrier to effective safety culture

Defensiveness in response to safety concerns prevents the open communication essential to aviation safety culture.

Question 86: You see the number 58274 displayed briefly. Later you are asked to identify the number with those exact digits rearranged: 52874. Which digit changed its position the most?

7
2 (Correct answer)
8
5

Correct answer: 2

The digits 8 and 2 swapped positions (positions 2 and 3), making digit 2 the answer as it moved from 3rd to 2nd place.

Question 87: During conflict simulation training, recognizing 'overtake geometry' is important. This occurs when:

Two aircraft are on perpendicular courses
A faster aircraft is directly behind a slower aircraft at the same altitude on the same route (Correct answer)
Two aircraft are on head-on courses
An aircraft is climbing into another aircraft's altitude

Correct answer: A faster aircraft is directly behind a slower aircraft at the same altitude on the same route

Overtake geometry involves a faster trailing aircraft closing on a slower leading aircraft; the conflict develops slowly but can be missed if not monitored.

Question 88: What is the correct phraseology to instruct a pilot to maintain runway heading after takeoff?

'Continue straight out'
'Depart runway heading'
'Maintain runway centerline'
'Fly runway heading' (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 'Fly runway heading'

The standard ATC phrase 'fly runway heading' instructs the pilot to maintain the magnetic heading of the departure runway.

Question 89: What is the standard altitude assignment increment between IFR aircraft at cruising altitude above FL290 under RVSM?

2,000 feet
1,000 feet (Correct answer)
4,000 feet
500 feet

Correct answer: 1,000 feet

RVSM allows 1,000-foot vertical separation between FL290 and FL410 for properly equipped aircraft.

Question 90: Which phonetic alphabet word represents the letter 'N' in standard aviation communications?

November (Correct answer)
Nevada
Nordic
Nancy

Correct answer: November

The ICAO/NATO phonetic alphabet uses 'November' for the letter N to ensure clarity on radio frequencies.

Question 91: Which ATC facility is responsible for issuing IFR clearances to departing aircraft at airports without a tower?

TRACON always handles clearances
The nearest ARTCC only
Pilots self-brief and depart without clearance
Flight Service Station or ARTCC clearance delivery (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Flight Service Station or ARTCC clearance delivery

At non-towered airports, pilots call Flight Service or use a Clearance Delivery frequency provided by the controlling ARTCC to receive their IFR clearance.

Question 92: A controller notices an aircraft's data tag has disappeared from the radar scope. The FIRST action should be:

Attempt to contact the aircraft immediately (Correct answer)
Declare an emergency
Notify the supervisor after 5 minutes
Wait to see if it reappears

Correct answer: Attempt to contact the aircraft immediately

Loss of radar contact requires immediate radio contact to verify the aircraft's position and status.

Question 93: All aircraft on approach are below 10,000 ft. Flight UAL456 is at 12,000 ft. What must be true?

UAL456 is departing
UAL456 is in cruise
UAL456 is not on approach (Correct answer)
UAL456 is on approach

Correct answer: UAL456 is not on approach

Since all approach aircraft are below 10,000 ft and UAL456 is at 12,000 ft, it cannot be on approach.

Question 94: A controller notices a potential conflict between two aircraft but is mid-transmission with a third aircraft. The best action is to:

Wait to see if the conflict resolves itself
End the transmission quickly with essential information only, then resolve the conflict immediately (Correct answer)
Finish the full transmission before addressing the conflict
Issue a blind traffic alert to all aircraft on frequency

Correct answer: End the transmission quickly with essential information only, then resolve the conflict immediately

Ending the current transmission with essential information and immediately resolving the conflict balances communication integrity with safety.

Question 95: In the ATSA scan test, which technique best helps a controller track multiple aircraft simultaneously?

Use a systematic left-to-right sweep of the display (Correct answer)
Rely on automated conflict alerts exclusively
Focus only on the most complex traffic situation
Watch only aircraft that have filed IFR flight plans

Correct answer: Use a systematic left-to-right sweep of the display

A systematic, consistent scan pattern ensures no aircraft is overlooked and prevents fixation errors.

Question 96: In a simulated conflict, the controller instructs a pilot to 'turn left heading 270, traffic 12 o'clock, 3 miles, same altitude.' The pilot responds 'unable, IMC and TCAS RA climb.' The controller should:

Insist on the left turn to ensure radar separation
Immediately contact the area supervisor
Declare an emergency on the aircraft's behalf
Acknowledge the RA and coordinate the climb with the adjacent altitude (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Acknowledge the RA and coordinate the climb with the adjacent altitude

When a pilot responds with a TCAS RA, the controller must not counter it and instead facilitates the RA maneuver by coordinating as needed.

Question 97: A pilot reports a bird strike and requests immediate return to the airport. The controller's first action should be:

Check for available runways and clear the path of conflicting traffic (Correct answer)
Update the flight strip with the new information
Contact the airline operations center
Notify fire and rescue only

Correct answer: Check for available runways and clear the path of conflicting traffic

The controller must immediately clear the aircraft's return path of all conflicting traffic to ensure a safe approach.

Question 98: A controller who frequently seeks validation from supervisors before making routine decisions may be demonstrating:

Excellent communication skills
Strong situational awareness
Low self-confidence or decision-making insecurity (Correct answer)
Advanced professional caution

Correct answer: Low self-confidence or decision-making insecurity

Routine decisions in ATC require independent judgment; frequent validation-seeking may indicate low confidence that hinders performance.

Question 99: A passage states: 'Radar contact is lost when the transponder return disappears from the display for more than two consecutive sweeps.' A controller notices a target missing for exactly two sweeps. What should the controller conclude?

The aircraft has likely experienced a total electrical failure
Radar contact has not yet been lost under this definition (Correct answer)
A pilot deviation report must be filed immediately
Radar contact is lost and the pilot must be notified

Correct answer: Radar contact has not yet been lost under this definition

The definition requires more than two consecutive sweeps without a return; two sweeps exactly does not meet the threshold, so radar contact is not yet officially lost.

Question 100: A controller notices two aircraft on converging headings at the same altitude. What is the FIRST priority action?

Wait to see if pilots self-separate
Issue a traffic alert and coordinate separation (Correct answer)
File an incident report
Notify the airline operations center

Correct answer: Issue a traffic alert and coordinate separation

The primary duty of an ATC is to provide separation, so issuing a traffic alert and coordinating instructions is the immediate first priority.

ATSA (Air Traffic Standardized Aptitude Test)

The ATSA (Air Traffic Standardized Aptitude Test) exam validates essential knowledge and skills required for certification or licensure in this field.

100

Questions

60 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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