Mixed Deck — All ATSA Topics Flashcards

When a controller clears an aircraft to 'descend via' a published STAR, what is the pilot expected to do?

Answer: Fly the lateral path and comply with all published altitude and speed restrictions on the STAR

'Descend via' authorizes the aircraft to follow the STAR's lateral course while complying with all depicted crossing restrictions for altitude and speed.

Two aircraft are on parallel runways 1,200 ft apart. A simultaneous approach is in progress. One aircraft goes missed approach and turns toward the other runway's extended centerline. What is the primary concern?

Answer: Loss of separation between the missed approach aircraft and the landing aircraft

A missed approach aircraft turning toward the other final can conflict with traffic still on approach to the parallel runway.

Read the following passage and answer the question. "Runway markings are essential for pilot guidance. The runway threshold marks the beginning of the surface available for landing and is identified by longitudinal white stripes. An area preceding the threshold marked with large yellow chevrons is known as a blast pad or stopway. This surface is not designed to support aircraft and is intended to prevent jet blast erosion; it must not be used for taxiing, takeoff, or landing. A displaced threshold, marked by white arrows leading to the threshold, indicates a portion of the runway that is available for taxi and takeoff but not for landing." A pilot on approach sees an area marked with yellow chevrons before the main runway surface. According to the text, for which of the following activities can this area be used?

Answer: It must not be used for taxiing, takeoff, or landing.

The passage clearly states that the area marked with yellow chevrons is a blast pad and 'must not be used for taxiing, takeoff, or landing.'

A radar return appears at bearing 270° and range 30 nm from the antenna. In what cardinal direction from the antenna is the aircraft?

Answer: West

Bearing 270° corresponds to due west.

A regulation excerpt states: 'No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has filed an IFR flight plan and received an appropriate ATC clearance.' A pilot is flying IFR in Class E airspace without having filed a flight plan. What has the pilot violated?

Answer: A mandatory regulation requiring both a filed plan and ATC clearance for IFR in controlled airspace

Class E is controlled airspace, and the regulation explicitly requires both a filed IFR flight plan and an ATC clearance to operate IFR within it.

Two aircraft report headings of 275° and 247°. What is the difference between these headings?

Answer: 28°

275 minus 247 equals 28 degrees.

An aircraft departs point A heading due east. After 30 nm it turns 90° left (north) and flies 40 nm. How far is it from point A in a straight line?

Answer: 50 nm

This forms a 3-4-5 right triangle: √(30² + 40²) = √(900+1600) = √2500 = 50 nm.

A directive reads: 'Position relief briefings must include current traffic, active runways, NOTAMs, and any non-standard equipment status. The relieving controller must verbally confirm readiness before assuming the position.' A briefing covers traffic and runways but omits NOTAMs. The relieving controller confirms readiness and takes over. What requirement was not met?

Answer: The inclusion of NOTAMs in the briefing

The directive lists NOTAMs as a required element of the briefing; omitting them means the briefing was incomplete even though other elements were covered.

A controller assigns an aircraft a left 360° orbit over a fix. After completing the orbit, in what direction is the aircraft facing compared to when it started?

Answer: Same as the original heading

A complete 360° orbit returns the aircraft to its original heading.

What is the purpose of a 'point out' between two ATC facilities?

Answer: To alert the adjacent controller of traffic that will enter their airspace without a full handoff

A point out identifies traffic to the adjacent sector that will penetrate their airspace so they can plan accordingly without assuming communications.

Imagine you are in the large aircraft's cockpit, looking forward. The small aircraft is flying parallel to you, but it is positioned exactly on your left wing. If you were to switch to the 'eye' perspective, located directly above both aircraft, where would the small aircraft be relative to the large aircraft?

Answer: To the left

The question requires a mental shift in perspective. From the cockpit, the plane is on the left. An 'eye' perspective from directly above does not change the left-right orientation. The small aircraft would still be observed to the left of the large aircraft.

A list of five frequencies is presented: 119.1, 118.9, 119.3, 118.7, 119.0. Which frequency is the median?

Answer: 119.1

Sorted: 118.7, 118.9, 119.0, 119.1, 119.3 — the median (middle) is 119.0.

At an air traffic control center, three tasks must be handled: Approach Control, Ground Control, and Tower Control. The following rules apply: 1) If Ben is assigned to Ground Control, then Carla must be assigned to Tower Control. 2) If David is assigned to Approach Control, Ben cannot be assigned to Ground Control. 3) David is assigned to Approach Control. Which of the following statements must be true?

Answer: Carla is not assigned to Tower Control.

From rule 3, we know David is assigned to Approach Control. According to rule 2, if David is assigned to Approach Control, then Ben cannot be assigned to Ground Control. From rule 1, the only way Carla can be assigned to Tower Control is if Ben is assigned to Ground Control. Since we have established that Ben is NOT assigned to Ground Control, it follows logically that Carla cannot be assigned to Tower Control.

During the ATC Collision Simulation, two aircraft icons, '3' and '7', are on a direct collision course. What is the appropriate action to take?

Answer: Press either '3' or '7' on the numeric keypad.

To prevent a collision, the test-taker only needs to press the number key corresponding to ONE of the conflicting aircraft. Pressing the number removes that icon from the screen, resolving the conflict. It is not necessary to press both numbers.

An aircraft reports at FL240 but radar shows it at FL230. The controller should:

Answer: Query the pilot to confirm altitude and check altimeter setting

A 1,000-foot discrepancy requires the controller to verify by questioning the pilot and checking altimeter settings before accepting either reading.

In ATC, what does the phrase 'resume own navigation' mean?

Answer: Discontinue the radar vector and proceed as cleared or on flight plan

When a controller says 'resume own navigation,' the pilot should stop following radar headings and return to flying their filed route or last assigned routing.

A controller views a sector map oriented with north at the top. An aircraft labeled 'N45' is in the upper-left quadrant heading southeast. Which quadrant will it enter next?

Answer: Lower-right

Southeast movement from the upper-left quadrant leads toward the lower-right quadrant.

A manual section reads: 'Separation minima are reduced in radar environment to 3 miles laterally or 1,000 feet vertically below FL180, and 5 miles laterally or 1,000 feet vertically at and above FL180.' Two aircraft are at FL200 with 4 miles of lateral separation and 0 feet of vertical separation. Are they separated?

Answer: No, because at FL200 the lateral minimum is 5 miles

At FL200 (at and above FL180), the lateral minimum is 5 miles; the aircraft are only 4 miles apart with no vertical separation, so they are not separated.

Route Alpha has 3 waypoints. Route Beta has twice as many waypoints as Alpha. Route Gamma has 4 fewer waypoints than Beta. How many waypoints does Gamma have?

Answer: 2

Alpha = 3; Beta = 6; Gamma = 6 - 4 = 2 waypoints.

A DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) shows 45 nautical miles to a VOR. The aircraft travels at 270 knots groundspeed. In how many minutes will it reach the VOR?

Answer: 10 minutes

At 270 knots (4.5 NM/min), covering 45 NM takes exactly 10 minutes.