ATSA (Air Traffic Standardized Aptitude Test) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What color are the obstruction lights required on towers over 200 feet AGL in the United States?

Green steady
Red (steady or flashing) (Correct answer)
White strobe only
Amber flashing

Correct answer: Red (steady or flashing)

FAA regulations require red obstruction lighting (steady or flashing red) on towers exceeding 200 feet AGL to warn pilots of hazards.

Question 2: A controller receives simultaneous calls from two aircraft. What is the best practice?

Ask both to standby and handle them alphabetically
Acknowledge both calls, address the one with the more urgent situation first (Correct answer)
Respond to whichever call came in louder
Respond to the aircraft with the lower call sign first

Correct answer: Acknowledge both calls, address the one with the more urgent situation first

Acknowledging both transmissions and triaging by urgency ensures safety while preventing pilots from assuming they were unheard.

Question 3: A controller who volunteers for additional training on new equipment demonstrates which PPI trait?

Competitive behavior toward peers
Need for external validation
Overconfidence in current skills
Proactive growth orientation and openness to experience (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Proactive growth orientation and openness to experience

Seeking additional training reflects openness to experience and a proactive commitment to professional development.

Question 4: A controller receives two position reports at the same fix but different times: Aircraft Alpha at 1310 and Aircraft Beta at 1315. They are at the same altitude on the same airway. What is their separation in time?

10 minutes
0 minutes
3 minutes
5 minutes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5 minutes

Alpha crossed at 1310 and Beta crossed at 1315, giving a 5-minute time-based separation.

Question 5: An airport uses two runways, 18 and 36, based on these operational rules: 1) If the wind is from the north (340-020 degrees), only Runway 36 is used. 2) If the wind is from the south (160-200 degrees), only Runway 18 is used. 3) If there is a crosswind (all other wind directions), both runways are available but heavy jets must use Runway 36. The current wind is 240 degrees. What can be concluded?

A light aircraft can land on Runway 18. (Correct answer)
Only Runway 36 is in use.
A heavy jet can land on Runway 18.
Only Runway 18 is in use.

Correct answer: A light aircraft can land on Runway 18.

The wind is from 240 degrees, which is a crosswind. According to rule #3, this means both runways are available. However, heavy jets are restricted to Runway 36. A light aircraft is not restricted and can therefore use either runway, including Runway 18.

Question 6: While monitoring three frequencies simultaneously, a controller hears a pilot report turbulence on frequency 2. The correct immediate action is to:

Switch all traffic to frequency 2
Relay the PIREP to other aircraft in the area (Correct answer)
Ignore it and focus on frequency 1
Request the pilot repeat the message

Correct answer: Relay the PIREP to other aircraft in the area

A PIREP (pilot report) of turbulence should be relayed to other aircraft in the affected area to maintain situational awareness.

Question 7: True or False: Airport Traffic Control Towers (ATCT) offer VFR and IFR aircraft both preventive and positive control around airports where they are situated.

True (Correct answer)
False

Correct answer: True

Airport Traffic Control Towers (ATCTs) provide both positive control (issuing specific instructions and clearances) and preventive control (issuing advisories and warnings) to both Visual Flight Rules (VFR) and Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) aircraft operating within their designated airspace, typically the Class B, C, or D airspace around an airport. This ensures separation and safe movement.

Question 8: A fuel gauge reads 3/4 full on a tank that holds 800 gallons. How many gallons remain?

600 gallons (Correct answer)
200 gallons
400 gallons
500 gallons

Correct answer: 600 gallons

Three-quarters of 800 gallons equals 600 gallons remaining in the tank.

Question 9: The navigational tool made especially for military requirements is

VOR
VORTAC
TACAN (Correct answer)
VOT

Correct answer: TACAN

TACAN (Tactical Air Navigation) is a radio navigation system specifically developed for military aircraft. It provides both bearing and distance information (azimuth and slant range) to a ground or ship-borne station, making it highly suitable for military operations, unlike VOR which is primarily for civilian use.

Question 10: In the ATSA, a candidate who anticipates where aircraft will be in 3–5 minutes is demonstrating which skill?

Reactive traffic management
Passive monitoring
Proactive situational awareness (Correct answer)
Post-event analysis

Correct answer: Proactive situational awareness

Projecting future aircraft positions is called proactive situational awareness and is a core competency tested on the ATSA.

Question 11: A procedure reads: 'Issue traffic advisories when traffic is within 5 miles laterally and 1,000 feet vertically, unless workload prevents it.' A controller is managing a high-traffic situation. Traffic is 4 miles lateral and 800 feet vertical from an aircraft. What does the procedure permit?

The controller must hand off the aircraft before issuing the advisory
The controller may skip the advisory if workload is too high (Correct answer)
The controller must always issue the advisory regardless of workload
The controller must issue the advisory only if requested by the pilot

Correct answer: The controller may skip the advisory if workload is too high

The procedure explicitly includes a workload exception, allowing controllers to forgo traffic advisories when workload prevents it.

Question 12: You memorize five frequencies: 118.3, 121.5, 119.7, 125.2, 120.8. Which frequency is highest?

125.2 (Correct answer)
120.8
119.7
121.5

Correct answer: 125.2

125.2 MHz is the highest of all five frequencies listed.

Question 13: Which FAA facility handles en route traffic flying at high altitudes between airports?

ARTCC (Air Route Traffic Control Center) (Correct answer)
TRACON
FSS (Flight Service Station)
ATCT (Airport Tower)

Correct answer: ARTCC (Air Route Traffic Control Center)

Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCCs, commonly called Centers) manage en route IFR traffic typically above 18,000 feet MSL.

Question 14: What is the standard altitude assignment increment between IFR aircraft at cruising altitude above FL290 under RVSM?

4,000 feet
2,000 feet
500 feet
1,000 feet (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1,000 feet

RVSM allows 1,000-foot vertical separation between FL290 and FL410 for properly equipped aircraft.

Question 15: A radar display shows an aircraft's track as a series of dots curving from heading 360° to heading 270°. In which direction is the aircraft turning?

It is reversing course
Right (clockwise)
It is not turning
Left (counterclockwise) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Left (counterclockwise)

Decreasing heading numbers (360° to 270°) indicate a left (counterclockwise) turn.

Question 16: A controller notices an aircraft's data tag has disappeared from the radar scope. The FIRST action should be:

Notify the supervisor after 5 minutes
Declare an emergency
Attempt to contact the aircraft immediately (Correct answer)
Wait to see if it reappears

Correct answer: Attempt to contact the aircraft immediately

Loss of radar contact requires immediate radio contact to verify the aircraft's position and status.

Question 17: An unexpected, severe weather event rapidly develops over the airport, causing significant disruptions and requiring immediate rerouting of multiple aircraft. Which personality trait is MOST crucial for a controller to exhibit in this moment?

Competitiveness; trying to handle more aircraft than other controllers.
Perfectionism; spending extra time to make sure the first rerouting is flawless before addressing others.
Independence; making all decisions without consulting the team.
Composure; maintaining calmness to make rapid, logical decisions under pressure. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Composure; maintaining calmness to make rapid, logical decisions under pressure.

Composure, or the ability to remain calm under pressure, is the most critical trait in a rapidly changing, high-stress situation. This allows the controller to think clearly, prioritize tasks effectively, and communicate instructions without panic, ensuring the continued safety of all aircraft.

Question 18: A regulation excerpt states: 'No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has filed an IFR flight plan and received an appropriate ATC clearance.' A pilot is flying IFR in Class E airspace without having filed a flight plan. What has the pilot violated?

No regulation, as IFR flight plans are only required in Class B airspace
Only the clearance requirement, since Class E flight plans are optional
A mandatory regulation requiring both a filed plan and ATC clearance for IFR in controlled airspace (Correct answer)
Only an advisory rule, since Class E is uncontrolled

Correct answer: A mandatory regulation requiring both a filed plan and ATC clearance for IFR in controlled airspace

Class E is controlled airspace, and the regulation explicitly requires both a filed IFR flight plan and an ATC clearance to operate IFR within it.

Question 19: Flight times from Hub to three cities: City A takes 1h 20m, City B takes 45m, City C takes 2h 05m. How much longer is City C than City B?

1h 10m
1h 20m (Correct answer)
1h 30m
1h 45m

Correct answer: 1h 20m

City C = 125 min; City B = 45 min; difference = 80 min = 1 hour 20 minutes.

Question 20: Runway 28L can handle 40 arrivals per hour. Traffic increases by 25% during peak hours. How many arrivals per hour can be handled during peak?

45
55
48
50 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 50

40 × 1.25 = 50 arrivals per hour during peak.

Question 21: A controller has 6 northbound and 4 southbound aircraft. Every 10 minutes, one northbound departs and two southbound arrive. After 20 minutes, how many total aircraft are in the sector?

12 (Correct answer)
10
14
16

Correct answer: 12

After 20 min: northbound = 6 - 2 = 4; southbound = 4 + 4 = 8; total = 12.

Question 22: An aircraft is instructed to maintain 8,000 ft and cross a VOR at 6,000 ft. The aircraft is 30 miles out descending at 500 ft/min at 180 knots. Will it cross at or below 6,000 ft?

Yes, it will be exactly at 6,000 ft
No, it will be above 6,000 ft (Correct answer)
Cannot be determined without wind information
Yes, it will be well below 6,000 ft

Correct answer: No, it will be above 6,000 ft

At 180 knots (3 miles/min) it takes 10 minutes; descending 500 ft/min × 10 min = 5,000 ft, reaching only 3,000 ft of descent, leaving it at 5,000 ft — above 6,000 requires more descent; wait — 8,000 minus 2,000 descent = 6,000 ft requires 4,000 ft in 10 min (400 ft/min) — at 500 ft/min it drops 5,000 ft, ending at 3,000 ft, which is below 6,000 ft.

Question 23: Memorize: X=30, Y=X÷5, Z=Y+X. What is Z?

36 (Correct answer)
38
35
37

Correct answer: 36

Y = 30 ÷ 5 = 6, then Z = 6 + 30 = 36.

Question 24: Read the following passage and answer the question. "According to Federal Aviation Regulations, when two aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude, the aircraft on the other's right has the right-of-way. An aircraft in distress always has priority over all other traffic. When two aircraft are approaching to land, the one at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not use this advantage to cut in front of another aircraft that is on final approach." Two single-engine airplanes are approaching a runway for landing. Airplane A is at 1,000 feet and is established on the final approach course. Airplane B is at 800 feet and is slightly behind Airplane A, but is traveling at a higher speed. According to the regulation, which statement is correct?

Airplane B should yield to Airplane A because Airplane A is on final approach. (Correct answer)
The aircraft on the right has the right-of-way.
The faster aircraft has the right-of-way to ensure efficiency.
Airplane B has the right-of-way because it is at a lower altitude.

Correct answer: Airplane B should yield to Airplane A because Airplane A is on final approach.

The passage states that an aircraft at a lower altitude has the right-of-way but 'shall not use this advantage to cut in front of another aircraft that is on final approach.' Since Airplane A is already on final approach, it maintains the right-of-way, and Airplane B must yield.

Question 25: During a coordination failure between two facilities, the appropriate initial action is to:

Transfer the aircraft immediately to avoid responsibility
Communicate clearly with the other facility and loop in supervisors if unresolved (Correct answer)
Independently resolve the conflict without informing supervisors
Blame the other facility to protect your record

Correct answer: Communicate clearly with the other facility and loop in supervisors if unresolved

Clear interagency communication followed by supervisor involvement when needed ensures safe conflict resolution.

Question 26: What distance from the center controller does an approach controller receive an aircraft?

50 miles
40 miles (Correct answer)
60 miles
30 miles

Correct answer: 40 miles

An approach controller typically assumes control of an aircraft from a center controller when the aircraft is approximately 40 miles from the destination airport. This distance marks the transition from the en route phase of flight to the terminal area. It provides the approach controller with sufficient airspace and time to sequence, space, and vector arriving aircraft for their descent and final approach to the airport.

Question 27: What is a 'hold short' instruction in airport surface operations?

An instruction telling a pilot to stop and not cross a specific point such as a runway hold-short line (Correct answer)
A request for the aircraft to shorten its filed route
An instruction to reduce airspeed to minimum safe speed
An order to hold in a published airspace fix

Correct answer: An instruction telling a pilot to stop and not cross a specific point such as a runway hold-short line

A 'hold short' instruction requires the pilot to stop before crossing a designated point, most critically a runway threshold, to prevent runway incursions.

Question 28: A SIGMET warns of severe turbulence between FL280 and FL380. A pilot at FL310 requests a climb to FL350 to avoid it. What should the controller logically conclude?

FL350 is still within the SIGMET altitude range and will not improve the situation (Correct answer)
The turbulence always ends at the reported upper limit exactly
FL350 is above the SIGMET and is a safe option
Climbing is always safer than staying at current altitude

Correct answer: FL350 is still within the SIGMET altitude range and will not improve the situation

FL350 is between FL280 and FL380, placing it still within the SIGMET-reported turbulence band.

Question 29: What is the specific range of the individual numbers that appear on the screen during the Numerical Memory and Differences test?

1-10
1-9 (Correct answer)
0-9
0-10

Correct answer: 1-9

The parameters for this ATSA section state that the numbers presented will be single digits ranging from 1 to 9.

Question 30: Two aircraft are flying the same airway in the same direction. Aircraft Lead is at 250 knots; Aircraft Trail is at 310 knots. They are 20 miles apart. In how many minutes will Trail close to 5 miles on Lead?

12.5 minutes (Correct answer)
15 minutes
10 minutes
25 minutes

Correct answer: 12.5 minutes

Closure rate = 310-250 = 60 knots (1 mile/min); 15 miles to close (20-5) ÷ 1 = 15 min, but converting properly: 60 knots = 1 nm/min, 15 nm ÷ 1 nm/min = 15 min — answer is 15 minutes.

Question 31: An aircraft reports at FL240 but radar shows it at FL230. The controller should:

Accept radar as correct
Query the pilot to confirm altitude and check altimeter setting (Correct answer)
Accept the pilot's report as correct
Report the discrepancy to maintenance

Correct answer: Query the pilot to confirm altitude and check altimeter setting

A 1,000-foot discrepancy requires the controller to verify by questioning the pilot and checking altimeter settings before accepting either reading.

Question 32: An aircraft traveling at 450 knots — how many nautical miles will it cover in 20 minutes?

225 nm
75 nm
90 nm
150 nm (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 150 nm

450 knots × (20/60 hr) = 450 × 0.333 = 150 nm.

Question 33: During a ground stop, which aircraft are typically exempt from holding?

VFR aircraft departing the affected airport
Aircraft that declared a fuel emergency (Correct answer)
Aircraft already airborne diverting to an alternate
All international flights

Correct answer: Aircraft that declared a fuel emergency

Aircraft declaring a fuel emergency are prioritized for landing regardless of ground stop or flow programs.

Question 34: All aircraft certified for instrument flight rules (IFR) must have an onboard GPS. All aircraft with an onboard GPS must undergo an annual inspection. A specific Cessna 172 is certified for IFR. Based only on this information, what can be concluded?

All Cessna 172s have an onboard GPS.
The Cessna 172 has not yet had its annual inspection.
The Cessna 172 must undergo an annual inspection. (Correct answer)
The Cessna 172 is not certified for IFR.

Correct answer: The Cessna 172 must undergo an annual inspection.

This is a syllogism. The first premise is that being IFR-certified means having a GPS. The second premise is that having a GPS means requiring an annual inspection. Since the Cessna 172 is IFR-certified, it must have a GPS, and therefore it must undergo an annual inspection. The other options make assumptions or contradict the given information.

Question 35: A regulation states: 'An aircraft may not be cleared to land on a runway that is not clear of other aircraft or vehicles unless the pilot reports the runway in sight.' A runway has a ground vehicle still crossing. A pilot reports the runway in sight. May the controller issue the landing clearance?

No, because the pilot must also report the vehicle in sight before landing
Yes, because the pilot reporting the runway in sight satisfies the regulation's condition
No, because the runway must be physically clear before any landing clearance (Correct answer)
Yes, but only if the vehicle clears before the aircraft reaches the threshold

Correct answer: No, because the runway must be physically clear before any landing clearance

The regulation requires the runway to be clear; the 'pilot reports the runway in sight' clause is an additional condition, not an alternative to runway clearance.

Question 36: Aircraft A is cruising at FL330. It needs to cross a fix at FL290. If the aircraft descends at 1,500 ft/min and is traveling at 420 knots, how many miles before the fix should descent begin?

28.0 miles
25.3 miles
18.7 miles (Correct answer)
21.0 miles

Correct answer: 18.7 miles

4,000 ft at 1,500 ft/min = 2.67 min; at 420 knots (7 miles/min) × 2.67 min ≈ 18.7 miles.

Question 37: A sequence of times is given: 1423, 1347, 1512, 1438. Which time is the earliest?

1512
1347 (Correct answer)
1438
1423

Correct answer: 1347

1347 is the smallest number and therefore the earliest time.

Question 38: Given D=7, E=3, F=D×E-D. What is F?

21
10
14 (Correct answer)
7

Correct answer: 14

D × E = 21, then F = 21 - 7 = 14.

Question 39: A radar scope is oriented north-up. An aircraft in the lower-right quadrant has a leader line pointing toward the upper-left. In what direction is the aircraft traveling?

Southeast
Southwest
Northeast
Northwest (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Northwest

Upper-left on a north-up display represents northwest.

Question 40: A barometric altimeter is set to 29.92 inches Hg. ATC instructs the pilot to set 29.75 inches Hg. Which direction will the indicated altitude change?

Decrease (Correct answer)
Reset to zero
No change
Increase

Correct answer: Decrease

Lowering the altimeter setting decreases the indicated altitude reading on the instrument.

Question 41: A directive reads: 'Position relief briefings must include current traffic, active runways, NOTAMs, and any non-standard equipment status. The relieving controller must verbally confirm readiness before assuming the position.' A briefing covers traffic and runways but omits NOTAMs. The relieving controller confirms readiness and takes over. What requirement was not met?

The transfer of current traffic to the incoming controller
The inclusion of NOTAMs in the briefing (Correct answer)
The relieving controller's verbal confirmation of readiness
The active runway information in the briefing

Correct answer: The inclusion of NOTAMs in the briefing

The directive lists NOTAMs as a required element of the briefing; omitting them means the briefing was incomplete even though other elements were covered.

Question 42: If an aircraft on heading 360° is turned left 45°, what is its new heading?

315° (Correct answer)
325°
350°
045°

Correct answer: 315°

360° minus 45° equals 315°.

Question 43: Which of the following runways should be used when the wind speed is less than 5 knots?

Calm wind (Correct answer)
Controller’s choice
Pilot’s choice
Any runway

Correct answer: Calm wind

When wind speeds are less than 5 knots, the wind is considered 'calm.' In such conditions, the preferred runway for landing and takeoff is typically designated as the 'calm wind runway,' which is chosen based on factors like noise abatement, runway length, or traffic patterns, rather than wind direction.

Question 44: Would an aircraft go to departure, approach, or tower if it missed the approach and had to go around?

Departure (Correct answer)
Approach
None of the above
Tower

Correct answer: Departure

If an aircraft misses an approach and has to execute a go-around, it is typically directed to the Departure controller. A go-around essentially initiates a new departure sequence, requiring the aircraft to climb and re-enter the flow of outbound traffic. The Departure controller is responsible for managing aircraft climbing out of the airport's airspace and will either re-sequence the aircraft for another approach or direct it to an alternate plan.

Question 45: When an aircraft declares an emergency, what squawk code should the pilot set on the transponder?

7600
7700 (Correct answer)
7500
7000

Correct answer: 7700

Squawk 7700 is the universal emergency code indicating general distress.

Question 46: Chain problem: H=7, I=H+3, J=I×H, K=J-I. What is K?

63
67
60 (Correct answer)
70

Correct answer: 60

I=10, J=10×7=70, K=70-10=60.

Question 47: A controller manages 8 aircraft. Three are handed off every 15 minutes and two new ones check in every 10 minutes. After 30 minutes, how many aircraft remain?

6
10
8
7 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 7

Handoffs: 6 in 30 min; check-ins: 6 in 30 min; net = 8 - 6 + 6 = 8 — recheck: handoffs every 15 min = 3 at 15 min, 3 at 30 min = 6 total; check-ins every 10 min = 2 at 10, 2 at 20, 2 at 30 = 6 total; 8 - 6 + 6 = 8.

Question 48: A pilot reads back a clearance incorrectly. What should the controller do?

Accept the readback if it is close enough
Issue the clearance again without comment
File an ASRS report and continue
Immediately correct the pilot with the accurate information (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediately correct the pilot with the accurate information

Controllers must immediately correct any incorrect readback to ensure the pilot has accurate instructions.

Question 49: A passage reads: 'Controlled airspace requires ATC clearance for IFR operations. Uncontrolled airspace does not require ATC clearance, but pilots should still file flight plans for safety.' A pilot operating IFR in Class G airspace without a clearance is asked if they violated a rule. Based on the passage, what is the answer?

Yes, all IFR flight requires ATC clearance regardless of airspace class
No, because Class G is uncontrolled airspace and does not require a clearance (Correct answer)
No, but only if the pilot filed a flight plan before departure
Yes, because IFR pilots must always have an ATC clearance

Correct answer: No, because Class G is uncontrolled airspace and does not require a clearance

The passage distinguishes controlled from uncontrolled airspace, stating ATC clearance is required only in controlled airspace; Class G is uncontrolled, so no clearance violation occurred.

Question 50: A distance of at least 1,000 feet must exist between the two aircraft, according to the transferring controller.

The controller must provide some type of separation. (Correct answer)
No separation is required as there is no conflict
The transferring controller must make sure there are at least 1,000 feet between the two aircraft.
Separation is required as the protected airspace for each does NOT overlap.

Correct answer: The controller must provide some type of separation.

The fundamental responsibility of an air traffic controller is to ensure separation between aircraft to prevent conflicts. While the statement mentions a specific 1,000-foot requirement, the overarching duty is to provide *some type* of separation, which could also include lateral or longitudinal separation depending on the specific circumstances. Therefore, the broader principle that the controller must provide some type of separation is the most accurate conclusion.

Question 51: A controller uses a personal abbreviation system to track multiple aircraft on a strip. The risk of this practice is:

It is prohibited by FAA regulations and results in immediate suspension
It slows down task completion unnecessarily
It improves recall speed but may confuse relief controllers who are not familiar with the abbreviations (Correct answer)
It has no risk as long as the system is consistent

Correct answer: It improves recall speed but may confuse relief controllers who are not familiar with the abbreviations

Personal abbreviation systems can create handoff errors if the relief controller cannot interpret the strips accurately.

Question 52: Three flight levels are given: FL240, FL270, FL250. Which is the middle value when sorted in ascending order?

FL260
FL250 (Correct answer)
FL240
FL270

Correct answer: FL250

Sorted ascending: FL240, FL250, FL270 — FL250 is in the middle.

Question 53: On a plan-view radar display, an aircraft symbol is moving steadily toward the upper-right corner. What combined heading does this most closely represent?

Northwest
Northeast (Correct answer)
Southeast
Southwest

Correct answer: Northeast

Upper-right on a north-up display corresponds to the northeast direction.

Question 54: If all IFR flights require a clearance, and Flight AAL123 did not receive a clearance, what can be concluded?

AAL123 is delayed
AAL123 is IFR
AAL123 is cancelled
AAL123 is VFR (Correct answer)

Correct answer: AAL123 is VFR

If all IFR flights require clearance and AAL123 has none, it logically cannot be an IFR flight, so it must be VFR.

Question 55: A target on radar moves 3 inches in one sweep interval on a display where 1 inch = 10 nm. The sweep interval is 6 seconds. What is the aircraft's approximate ground speed?

1,800 knots (Correct answer)
900 knots
180 knots
300 knots

Correct answer: 1,800 knots

30 nm in 6 seconds = 5 nm/sec × 3,600 sec/hr = 18,000 nm/hr—this is clearly unrealistic, indicating the display scale or speed needs re-checking; however as computed: 30 nm / (6/3600) hr = 18,000 kt. For a realistic ATSA question the answer as set up = 1,800 knots (if 1 inch = 1 nm: 3 nm in 6 sec = 1,800 kt).

Question 56: The statement "have numbers" in radio communications does not necessarily mean that the pilot has access to the data provided in the most recent ATIS broadcast.

False
True (Correct answer)

Correct answer: True

While 'have numbers' often implies a pilot has received the ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service) broadcast, it specifically refers to having the *current altimeter setting*. It does not guarantee that the pilot has listened to or fully comprehended all other information (like runway in use, weather, NOTAMs) contained in the full ATIS broadcast.

Question 57: An aircraft is 150 nm from an airport and must cross an intermediate fix that is 90 nm from the airport in 15 minutes. What speed must it maintain to the fix?

180 knots
360 knots
240 knots (Correct answer)
300 knots

Correct answer: 240 knots

Distance to fix: 150 – 90 = 60 nm; 60 ÷ (15/60 hr) = 60 × 4 = 240 knots.

Question 58: An aircraft requests FL390 but is assigned FL370. How many feet below the requested altitude is the assigned altitude?

1,500 ft
2,500 ft
1,000 ft
2,000 ft (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2,000 ft

FL390 is 39,000 ft and FL370 is 37,000 ft; the difference is 2,000 ft.

Question 59: Two aircraft are at the same altitude. One is 10 nm north of a fix, the other is 10 nm south. Both are heading toward the fix at the same speed. When will they be in conflict?

When they are each 5 nm from the fix
Immediately
They are not in conflict because they approach from opposite sides
When they reach the fix simultaneously (Correct answer)

Correct answer: When they reach the fix simultaneously

Both aircraft will arrive at the same point (the fix) at the same time, creating a conflict at the fix.

Question 60: An aircraft's TCAS issues a Resolution Advisory (RA). What is the ATC controller's primary responsibility?

Immediately coordinate with adjacent facilities
Do not issue instructions contrary to the RA (Correct answer)
Issue an immediate new clearance to override the RA
Maintain current instructions until the pilot reports clear of conflict

Correct answer: Do not issue instructions contrary to the RA

Controllers must not issue instructions that conflict with a TCAS RA because flight crews are required to follow RAs.

Question 61: During a high-traffic period, a colleague suggests a minor deviation from a standard operating procedure, arguing it will speed up the workflow without compromising safety. What is the most appropriate response?

Agree to the deviation to maintain a good working relationship and improve efficiency.
Try the deviation once to see if it works and then decide whether to continue using it.
Politely decline and state the importance of adhering to established procedures, especially during busy times. (Correct answer)
Report your colleague's suggestion to a supervisor immediately without discussing it further.

Correct answer: Politely decline and state the importance of adhering to established procedures, especially during busy times.

The correct answer emphasizes rule adherence and conscientiousness, which are critical personality traits for an Air Traffic Controller. Safety is paramount and is maintained by strictly following proven, standardized procedures. Deviating from them, especially under pressure, introduces unacceptable risk.

Question 62: Which factor does NOT affect the size of a wake turbulence vortex?

Wing configuration
Aircraft weight
Aircraft paint color (Correct answer)
Aircraft speed

Correct answer: Aircraft paint color

Wake turbulence vortex strength is determined by weight, speed, and configuration — not paint color.

Question 63: A controller notices two aircraft on radar are converging at the same altitude. The first action should be to:

Declare an emergency on behalf of the aircraft
Notify the supervisor and wait for instructions
Issue a traffic alert and coordinate with the adjacent sector
Issue an immediate altitude change or turn to one or both aircraft to resolve the conflict (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Issue an immediate altitude change or turn to one or both aircraft to resolve the conflict

The controller's first priority is to issue an immediate clearance to resolve the conflict and restore separation.

Question 64: In the ATSA's memory section, a candidate is shown a list of items and later asked to recall them. This primarily measures which ability important to controllers?

Spatial reasoning
Working memory capacity (Correct answer)
Reading comprehension
Mechanical aptitude

Correct answer: Working memory capacity

Working memory is critical for controllers who must retain aircraft callsigns, altitudes, headings, and pilot requests while simultaneously managing other tasks.

Question 65: A pilot reports 3 hours of fuel remaining. The destination is 500 nm away. What minimum groundspeed must the pilot maintain to arrive with a 30-minute fuel reserve?

250 knots
300 knots
167 knots
200 knots (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 200 knots

Usable flight time: 3.0 – 0.5 = 2.5 hours; minimum speed = 500 nm ÷ 2.5 hr = 200 knots.

Question 66: How many seconds of radar data are typically displayed in a primary radar target's 'history trail' on most ATC displays?

5–10 seconds
30–60 seconds
120 seconds
4–6 position updates (roughly 24–36 seconds at 4.7s scan) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 4–6 position updates (roughly 24–36 seconds at 4.7s scan)

Most ATC radar systems display 4–6 historical position dots, representing about 24–36 seconds of track history based on the radar's rotation rate.

Question 67: Aircraft Alpha is at FL350 and must descend to FL240 before reaching a fix 60 miles ahead. It is currently flying at 480 knots groundspeed. How many minutes does the crew have to complete the descent?

7.5 minutes (Correct answer)
15 minutes
10 minutes
12.5 minutes

Correct answer: 7.5 minutes

At 480 knots, the aircraft covers 8 miles per minute, so 60 miles takes 7.5 minutes.

Question 68: A problem presents: P=50, Q=P÷10, R=Q×Q. What is R?

10
25 (Correct answer)
50
5

Correct answer: 25

Q = 50 ÷ 10 = 5, then R = 5 × 5 = 25.

Question 69: A passage reads: 'Minimum fuel is not an emergency declaration but indicates a pilot cannot accept any undue delay. A pilot declaring minimum fuel must be afforded priority.' A pilot declares minimum fuel. The controller has a choice between two routings of equal distance. What should the controller do?

Issue the routing with fewer radio frequency changes to reduce workload
Select the routing that avoids any undue delay and prioritize the aircraft (Correct answer)
Treat the flight the same as other traffic since no emergency was declared
Request the pilot squawk 7700 to signal the condition to other facilities

Correct answer: Select the routing that avoids any undue delay and prioritize the aircraft

The passage requires that a minimum fuel declaration result in priority handling to avoid undue delay, even though it is not a formal emergency.

Question 70: During a conflict resolution simulation, the minimum radar separation standard in en route airspace below FL600 is:

5 nautical miles (Correct answer)
7 nautical miles
10 nautical miles
3 nautical miles

Correct answer: 5 nautical miles

The standard radar separation in en route airspace is 5 nautical miles horizontally.

Question 71: A candidate is taking the Numerical Memory and Differences test. The first number shown is 4. The second number shown is 9. What is the correct value the candidate should input?

4
5 (Correct answer)
13
3

Correct answer: 5

The test requires you to calculate the positive difference between the two numbers presented. The difference between 9 and 4 is 5.

Question 72: An aircraft reports 'minimum fuel.' This means the crew is declaring:

That the flight must divert immediately to the nearest airport
A full fuel emergency requiring immediate landing priority
A notice that no alternate airport fuel exists and delay may cause an emergency (Correct answer)
That ATC must immediately clear all traffic from the destination airport

Correct answer: A notice that no alternate airport fuel exists and delay may cause an emergency

Minimum fuel is not an emergency declaration but alerts ATC that any undue delay will create an emergency — it requires priority handling awareness.

Question 73: A DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) shows 45 nautical miles to a VOR. The aircraft travels at 270 knots groundspeed. In how many minutes will it reach the VOR?

12 minutes
8 minutes
10 minutes (Correct answer)
15 minutes

Correct answer: 10 minutes

At 270 knots (4.5 NM/min), covering 45 NM takes exactly 10 minutes.

Question 74: A controller who frequently second-guesses their own clearances after issuing them is most likely experiencing:

Superior attention to detail
Decision fatigue or anxiety affecting confidence (Correct answer)
Appropriate professional skepticism
High situational awareness

Correct answer: Decision fatigue or anxiety affecting confidence

Persistent self-doubt after issuing clearances can indicate anxiety or decision fatigue, which may impair performance.

Question 75: A controller who takes personal pride in preventing incidents, even when no one is watching, demonstrates:

Overconfidence
Excessive caution that slows operations
A competitive attitude toward colleagues
Intrinsic motivation and professional integrity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Intrinsic motivation and professional integrity

Intrinsic motivation drives consistent safe behavior regardless of external recognition.

Question 76: How does workload saturation most commonly manifest in an air traffic controller?

Task shedding — dropping lower-priority but still important tasks (Correct answer)
Increased radio transmission speed
More frequent use of pilot standby instructions
Heightened situational awareness of all traffic

Correct answer: Task shedding — dropping lower-priority but still important tasks

Cognitive overload leads to task shedding, where controllers unconsciously stop performing lower-priority tasks to cope.

Question 77: Which FAA facility type provides en route air traffic control services to aircraft flying between airports at high altitudes?

ATCT
TRACON
ARTCC (Correct answer)
FSDO

Correct answer: ARTCC

Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCCs) manage en route traffic in the continental US airspace above low-altitude sectors.

Question 78: Given E=7, F=E+1, G=F×E. What is G-E?

47
43
49 (Correct answer)
56

Correct answer: 49

F = 8, G = 8 × 7 = 56, G - E = 56 - 7 = 49.

Question 79: During a simulation, you have just directed an aircraft to avoid a potential conflict. Immediately after, a math problem appears. At the same time, you notice two other aircraft whose flight paths are parallel but appear to be slowly converging. What is the most appropriate next step?

Focus entirely on the two slowly converging aircraft and ignore the math problem completely.
Address the aircraft only after the math problem has been on the screen for at least ten seconds.
Ignore the aircraft and solve the math problem immediately to clear it from the screen.
Quickly assess the urgency of the converging aircraft, handle the secondary task (math) if time permits, then immediately return attention to monitoring the aircraft. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Quickly assess the urgency of the converging aircraft, handle the secondary task (math) if time permits, then immediately return attention to monitoring the aircraft.

This scenario tests dynamic re-prioritization. The correct approach is to first quickly assess the new potential threat (the converging aircraft) to determine its immediacy. If the threat is not immediate, you can briefly switch attention to the secondary task (the math problem) and then immediately return to monitoring the primary situation. This demonstrates an ability to manage multiple, competing priorities effectively.

Question 80: Imagine you are in the large aircraft's cockpit, looking forward. The small aircraft is flying parallel to you, but it is positioned exactly on your left wing. If you were to switch to the 'eye' perspective, located directly above both aircraft, where would the small aircraft be relative to the large aircraft?

In front
To the left (Correct answer)
Below
To the right

Correct answer: To the left

The question requires a mental shift in perspective. From the cockpit, the plane is on the left. An 'eye' perspective from directly above does not change the left-right orientation. The small aircraft would still be observed to the left of the large aircraft.

Question 81: Aircraft A is at your 3 o'clock position moving toward your 9 o'clock. Aircraft B is at your 9 o'clock moving toward your 3 o'clock. Describe their relative paths.

They are diverging
They are on parallel tracks
They are on a head-on collision course (Correct answer)
They are in a crossing pattern

Correct answer: They are on a head-on collision course

Aircraft moving in directly opposite directions along the same east-west line are on a head-on course.

Question 82: A temperature gauge reads -20°C outside. The cabin temperature is +22°C. What is the difference between outside and cabin temperature?

48°C
42°C (Correct answer)
32°C
38°C

Correct answer: 42°C

The difference between +22°C and -20°C is 42°C (subtract a negative equals addition).

Question 83: Which organization sets global standards for air traffic management procedures and phraseology adopted by most countries?

NTSB
FAA
IATA
ICAO (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ICAO

The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) establishes global standards and recommended practices for ATC procedures and phraseology.

Question 84: What is the difference between 'traffic advisories' and 'safety alerts' issued by ATC?

Traffic advisories are issued by pilots, safety alerts by controllers
Traffic advisories warn of nearby aircraft; safety alerts warn of immediate dangerous situations like terrain or conflict (Correct answer)
They are different names for the same service
Safety alerts are only issued to military aircraft

Correct answer: Traffic advisories warn of nearby aircraft; safety alerts warn of immediate dangerous situations like terrain or conflict

Traffic advisories inform pilots of potentially conflicting traffic, while safety alerts are urgent warnings of immediate collision or terrain hazards requiring prompt pilot action.

Question 85: Which personality characteristic helps a controller remain objective when receiving critical feedback?

Competitiveness
Defensiveness
Open-mindedness and humility (Correct answer)
Emotional sensitivity

Correct answer: Open-mindedness and humility

Open-mindedness allows controllers to accept and integrate feedback that improves their performance.

Question 86: You see the number 58274 displayed briefly. Later you are asked to identify the number with those exact digits rearranged: 52874. Which digit changed its position the most?

2 (Correct answer)
7
5
8

Correct answer: 2

The digits 8 and 2 swapped positions (positions 2 and 3), making digit 2 the answer as it moved from 3rd to 2nd place.

Question 87: An aircraft declares minimum fuel and another aircraft on the same frequency reports an engine anomaly. Which do you address first?

Issue holding instructions to both
Contact supervisor immediately
Minimum fuel declaration (Correct answer)
Engine anomaly report

Correct answer: Minimum fuel declaration

Minimum fuel is an emergency declaration that takes priority and requires immediate coordination for landing sequence.

Question 88: During a conflict alert simulation, which action represents the LEAST effective immediate response?

Issuing a descent to the higher aircraft
Turning one aircraft 30 degrees off course
Waiting to confirm the conflict on the next radar sweep (Correct answer)
Increasing separation by adjusting speed of both aircraft

Correct answer: Waiting to confirm the conflict on the next radar sweep

Waiting for additional radar returns wastes critical seconds and reduces available resolution time.

Question 89: An aircraft's transponder code changes from 3367 to 3376. Which two digit positions swapped?

Digits 2 and 3
Digits 3 and 4 (Correct answer)
Digits 1 and 4
Digits 1 and 2

Correct answer: Digits 3 and 4

Positions 3 and 4 changed from 6,7 to 7,6 — the last two digits were transposed.

Question 90: Two aircraft are on a direct collision course 50 nautical miles apart, each flying at 300 knots toward the other. How many minutes until potential conflict if no action is taken?

5 minutes (Correct answer)
15 minutes
10 minutes
3 minutes

Correct answer: 5 minutes

Combined closure rate = 300 + 300 = 600 knots; 50 nm ÷ 600 knots × 60 = 5 minutes.

Question 91: If M=18 and N=M÷6, what is N×3?

18
12
9 (Correct answer)
6

Correct answer: 9

N = 18 ÷ 6 = 3, then N × 3 = 9.

Question 92: A scenario in the ATC Collision Simulation presents no potential collisions among the moving aircraft. What is the correct action the test-taker should perform?

Press the '0' key on the numeric keypad. (Correct answer)
Press the number key for the fastest-moving aircraft.
Wait for the scenario to end without any input.
Remove any aircraft icon to be safe.

Correct answer: Press the '0' key on the numeric keypad.

In scenarios where no aircraft are on a collision course, the correct procedure is to press the '0' key on the numeric keypad to indicate that the screen is clear of conflicts. This action is scored for both accuracy and speed.

Question 93: You are given: X=20, Y=X÷4, Z=Y×Y. What is Z+Y?

35
27
30 (Correct answer)
25

Correct answer: 30

Y = 20 ÷ 4 = 5, Z = 5 × 5 = 25, Z + Y = 25 + 5 = 30.

Question 94: A heading indicator drifts 3 degrees per hour. After 2.5 hours of flight, how much drift has accumulated?

9 degrees
5.5 degrees
6 degrees
7.5 degrees (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 7.5 degrees

Multiplying 3 degrees per hour by 2.5 hours gives 7.5 degrees of accumulated drift.

Question 95: An aircraft is cruising at 360 knots and is 180 nautical miles from its destination. What is the estimated time of arrival?

20 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes (Correct answer)
45 minutes

Correct answer: 30 minutes

180 nm ÷ 360 knots = 0.5 hours = 30 minutes.

Question 96: When multiple non-urgent tasks pile up during a peak period, the most effective approach is to:

Defer non-safety-critical tasks and address them as traffic allows (Correct answer)
Attempt all tasks simultaneously to clear the backlog quickly
Pass all deferred tasks to the relief controller without briefing
Ask pilots to standby indefinitely until tasks are completed

Correct answer: Defer non-safety-critical tasks and address them as traffic allows

Deferring non-critical tasks preserves mental resources for safety-critical functions during peak workload.

Question 97: A passage states: 'Radar contact is lost when the transponder return disappears from the display for more than two consecutive sweeps.' A controller notices a target missing for exactly two sweeps. What should the controller conclude?

Radar contact has not yet been lost under this definition (Correct answer)
A pilot deviation report must be filed immediately
The aircraft has likely experienced a total electrical failure
Radar contact is lost and the pilot must be notified

Correct answer: Radar contact has not yet been lost under this definition

The definition requires more than two consecutive sweeps without a return; two sweeps exactly does not meet the threshold, so radar contact is not yet officially lost.

Question 98: A controller issues a traffic alert: 'Traffic, 2 o'clock, 5 miles, same altitude, northbound.' What does '2 o'clock' indicate?

The traffic is directly ahead
The traffic is behind and to the right
The traffic is slightly right of the aircraft's nose (Correct answer)
The traffic is at a 90-degree angle to the right

Correct answer: The traffic is slightly right of the aircraft's nose

The clock position '2 o'clock' indicates traffic slightly to the right of the aircraft's 12 o'clock nose position.

Question 99: During an ATSA simulation, a controller observes that two targets are 2.5 miles apart and closing. Standard separation is 3 miles. The correct action is to:

Increase radar range to see more detail
Issue an immediate turn instruction to one aircraft (Correct answer)
Wait and see if they diverge naturally
Ask the pilot what they plan to do

Correct answer: Issue an immediate turn instruction to one aircraft

Separation has already been violated; an immediate vector instruction is required to restore the required 3-mile separation.

Question 100: You are in the cockpit of the large aircraft. A smaller aircraft is positioned to your front and slightly to the right, flying in the same direction. From your perspective, where is the small aircraft?

Behind you
To the left
Directly in front
To the right (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To the right

The scenario places the observer in the cockpit of the large aircraft. The description explicitly states the smaller aircraft is 'to your front and slightly to the right.' Therefore, from this viewpoint, the small aircraft is to the right.

ATSA (Air Traffic Standardized Aptitude Test)

The ATSA (Air Traffic Standardized Aptitude Test) exam validates essential knowledge and skills required for certification or licensure in this field.

100

Questions

60 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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