ASVAB Practice Test: Video 3 Answers (25 Questions) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Two vehicles start from the same point and travel in opposite directions at 40 mph and 55 mph. How far apart are they after 3 hours?

285 miles (Correct answer)
240 miles
315 miles
165 miles

Correct answer: 285 miles

Combined speed = 40 + 55 = 95 mph; distance = 95 × 3 = 285 miles apart.

Question 2: A project requires 360 work-hours. If a team of 9 people works 8 hours a day, how many days will the project take?

4 days
6 days
8 days
5 days (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5 days

The team produces 9 × 8 = 72 work-hours per day; 360 ÷ 72 = 5 days.

Question 3: Which of the following is NOT a factor of 90?

12 (Correct answer)
5
15
6

Correct answer: 12

A factor of a number divides into that number evenly, with no remainder. We can check each option: 90/5 = 18, 90/6 = 15, and 90/15 = 6, so 5, 6, and 15 are all factors of 90. However, 90 divided by 12 results in 7.5, which is not an integer. Therefore, 12 is not a factor of 90.

Question 4: A soldier earns $2,400 per month. If 15% is withheld for taxes, how much does the soldier take home each month?

$1,920
$2,100
$1,980
$2,040 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: $2,040

15% of $2,400 is $360, so $2,400 – $360 = $2,040 take-home pay.

Question 5: A tank holds 240 gallons and is currently 3/8 full. How many gallons are needed to fill it completely?

120 gallons
160 gallons
150 gallons (Correct answer)
90 gallons

Correct answer: 150 gallons

The tank has 3/8 × 240 = 90 gallons, so it needs 240 – 90 = 150 more gallons.

Question 6: What is the pH of a neutral solution at 25°C?

5
0
7 (Correct answer)
14

Correct answer: 7

A pH of 7 is considered neutral, with values below 7 being acidic and above 7 being basic.

Question 7: What term describes the maximum population size an environment can sustainably support?

Carrying capacity (Correct answer)
Biotic potential
Population density
Ecological niche

Correct answer: Carrying capacity

Carrying capacity is the maximum number of individuals an environment can support given available resources.

Question 8: If one tectonic plate slides under another, the process is known as:

Inversion
Orogenesis
Abduction
Subduction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Subduction

Subduction is a geological process where one tectonic plate moves under another and sinks into the mantle as the plates converge. This process is a fundamental part of plate tectonics and is associated with phenomena like volcanic activity and earthquakes.

Question 9: The International System (SI) unit of force is which of the following?

Dyne
Watt
Joule
Newton (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Newton

The International System of Units (SI) designates the Newton (N) as the standard unit of force. One Newton is defined as the force required to accelerate a mass of one kilogram at a rate of one meter per second squared (1 N = 1 kg·m/s²). Joule is the unit for energy, and Watt is the unit for power.

Question 10: In an electromagnetic wave, as the frequency of the wave becomes greater, what becomes shorter?

The velocity
The spring constant
The node
The wavelength (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The wavelength

In an electromagnetic wave, frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional. This means that as the frequency of the wave increases, its wavelength decreases, and vice versa, while the speed of light remains constant. This relationship is described by the equation c = fλ, where c is the speed of light, f is frequency, and λ is wavelength.

Question 11: If a man uses 200 N of force over a distance of 50 meters, how many joules of work are performed?

10,000 (Correct answer)
20,000
1,000
5,000

Correct answer: 10,000

Work is a measure of energy transferred when a force causes displacement. It is calculated by multiplying the force applied by the distance over which the force acts (Work = Force × Distance). In this scenario, a force of 200 Newtons (N) applied over a distance of 50 meters (m) results in 200 N × 50 m = 10,000 Joules (J) of work performed.

Question 12: What is a component of potential energy?

Gravity’s relationship to mass (Correct answer)
Upward reactive force
The energy of movement
Newtons and distance

Correct answer: Gravity’s relationship to mass

Potential energy is stored energy an object possesses due to its position or state. Gravitational potential energy, a common form, specifically depends on an object's mass, its height relative to a reference point, and the acceleration due to gravity. Therefore, gravity's relationship to mass is a critical component in determining an object's gravitational potential energy (PE = mgh).

Question 13: What is the advantage of a single pulley?

It allows you to lift something with less force
It diminishes the effects of gravity
It changes the direction of the effort (Correct answer)
It decreases the chances of injury

Correct answer: It changes the direction of the effort

A single fixed pulley does not provide any mechanical advantage in terms of reducing the amount of force required to lift an object. Its primary benefit lies in changing the direction of the effort force. This allows a person to pull downwards, often using their body weight, to lift an object upwards, which can be more convenient and ergonomic than lifting directly against gravity.

Question 14: Which type of gear arrangement reverses the direction of rotation between the input and output shaft?

Planetary gear
Two meshing spur gears (Correct answer)
Bevel gear
Worm gear

Correct answer: Two meshing spur gears

Two meshing spur gears always rotate in opposite directions.

Question 15: What happens to the pressure of a gas in a sealed container when the temperature increases (volume constant)?

Pressure decreases
Pressure stays the same
Volume increases instead
Pressure increases (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pressure increases

Gay-Lussac's Law states that at constant volume, pressure is directly proportional to absolute temperature.

Question 16: If 511 = 52 x 5m, what is the value of m?

3
5.5
9 (Correct answer)
12.5

Correct answer: 9

When multiplying exponents with the same base, you add the powers. So, 5² x 5ᵐ = 5⁽²⁺ᵐ⁾. The given equation is 5¹¹ = 5⁽²⁺ᵐ⁾. For this equality to hold true, the exponents must be equal: 11 = 2 + m. Subtracting 2 from both sides gives m = 9.

Question 17: 2 − 8 ÷ (24 ÷ 2) =

2
1 (Correct answer)
-¾
-6

Correct answer: 1

Follow the order of operations (PEMDAS/BODMAS). First, calculate the exponent: 2⁴ = 16. Next, perform the division inside the parentheses: 16 ÷ 2 = 8. Now the expression is 2 − 8 ÷ 8. Perform the division: 8 ÷ 8 = 1. Finally, perform the subtraction: 2 − 1 = 1.

Question 18: The circumference of a circle is 20 cm. What is the approximate radius of the circle?

7.0 cm
8.5 cm
3.2 cm (Correct answer)
1.5 cm

Correct answer: 3.2 cm

The formula for the circumference of a circle is C = 2πr, where 'r' is the radius. Given the circumference is 20 cm, we can set up the equation 20 = 2πr. To find 'r', divide 20 by 2π: r = 20 / (2 * 3.14) = 20 / 6.28 ≈ 3.18 cm. The closest approximate radius is 3.2 cm.

Question 19: Line l passes through the point (−1, 2). Which of the following CANNOT be the equation of line l?

x = −1
y = x + 3
y = x + 1 (Correct answer)
y = 1 − x

Correct answer: y = x + 1

To determine if a line passes through a point, substitute the x and y coordinates of the point into the equation. For the point (-1, 2) and the equation y = x + 1, substituting gives 2 = (-1) + 1, which simplifies to 2 = 0. Since this statement is false, the line y = x + 1 cannot pass through the point (-1, 2).

Question 20: 3(x − 4) = 18, what is the value of x?

3\/2
22\/3
6
10 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 10

First, distribute the 3 on the left side: 3x - 12 = 18. Next, add 12 to both sides of the equation: 3x = 18 + 12, which simplifies to 3x = 30. Finally, divide both sides by 3 to solve for x: x = 30 / 3 = 10.

Question 21: A square is cut diagonally from the top-left to the bottom-right corner, creating two triangles. What shape is each resulting piece?

Isosceles right triangle with unequal legs
Obtuse triangle
Equilateral triangle
Right triangle (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Right triangle

A diagonal cut across a square always produces two right triangles, each with one 90° angle at a corner of the original square.

Question 22: Two identical semicircles are placed with their flat edges facing each other. What shape do they form when joined?

An oval
A hexagon
A complete circle (Correct answer)
A rectangle

Correct answer: A complete circle

Two semicircles joined at their flat (diameter) edges form a complete circle.

Question 23: A large circle has a dot at its 3 o'clock position. A small triangle has a dot at its apex (top vertex). How are they connected in the correct answer?

The triangle's apex points toward the circle's center
The circle's 3 o'clock edge touches the triangle's apex (Correct answer)
The circle's 12 o'clock position touches the triangle's base
The triangle sits inside the circle

Correct answer: The circle's 3 o'clock edge touches the triangle's apex

The dot at the circle's 3 o'clock and the dot at the triangle's apex are the two connection points that must meet.

Question 24: A circle is divided into 6 equal sectors (like pizza slices). If 2 sectors are removed, what fraction of the original circle remains?

Three-quarters
One-half
Five-sixths
Two-thirds (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Two-thirds

Removing 2 of 6 equal sectors leaves 4/6, which simplifies to two-thirds of the original circle.

Question 25: Three identical equilateral triangles are arranged so that each shares one edge with the center triangle. What overall shape do they form?

A trapezoid
A star
A hexagon
A larger triangle (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A larger triangle

One center equilateral triangle with three more attached to its three sides creates a larger equilateral triangle.

ASVAB Practice Test: Video 3 Answers (25 Questions)

Two vehicles start from the same point and travel in opposite directions at 40 mph and 55 mph.
How far apart are they after 3 hours?

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