ARRT Patient Care and Management 4 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: During a radiographic procedure, the patient suddenly becomes unresponsive and pulseless. After activating the emergency response system, the NEXT step is:
- Administer epinephrine
- Begin high-quality CPR at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute (Correct answer)
- Obtain a 12-lead ECG
- Position the patient in Trendelenburg
Correct answer: Begin high-quality CPR at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute
After activating emergency response, immediate high-quality chest compressions at 100-120/min are the next priority in cardiac arrest management.
Question 2: Which of the following blood pressure readings requires the technologist to notify the supervising physician before proceeding with an elective exam?
- 118/76 mmHg
- 130/84 mmHg
- 148/92 mmHg
- 180/110 mmHg (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 180/110 mmHg
A blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg represents Stage 2 hypertension and warrants physician notification before proceeding with elective imaging, especially contrast studies.
Question 3: A nasogastric tube is MOST commonly inserted to:
- Administer IV contrast agents
- Decompress the stomach or deliver enteral nutrition (Correct answer)
- Monitor central venous pressure
- Administer oxygen therapy
Correct answer: Decompress the stomach or deliver enteral nutrition
Nasogastric tubes are used for gastric decompression, lavage, or delivering liquid nutrition directly to the stomach.
Question 4: A patient with diabetes mellitus is diaphoretic, confused, and trembling before a scheduled imaging exam. The technologist should suspect:
- Hyperglycemia
- Hypoglycemia (Correct answer)
- A contrast reaction from a previous exam
- Vasovagal syncope
Correct answer: Hypoglycemia
Diaphoresis, confusion, and trembling in a diabetic patient are classic signs of hypoglycemia, requiring immediate glucose administration and physician notification.
Question 5: When documenting contrast media administration, which information is REQUIRED in the patient's medical record?
- The radiologist's personal opinion of the scan quality
- The type, concentration, volume, route of administration, and any adverse reactions (Correct answer)
- Only the name and volume of contrast given
- The technologist's interpretation of the images
Correct answer: The type, concentration, volume, route of administration, and any adverse reactions
Complete contrast documentation must include agent name, concentration, total volume, route, lot number if required, and any adverse reactions observed.
Question 6: The term 'scope of practice' for a radiologic technologist is BEST defined as:
- The physical area of the radiology department the technologist may work in
- The range of procedures and responsibilities authorized by law, education, and credentialing (Correct answer)
- The number of patients a technologist may treat per shift
- The types of imaging equipment the technologist may purchase
Correct answer: The range of procedures and responsibilities authorized by law, education, and credentialing
Scope of practice defines the legal, educational, and credentialing boundaries within which a radiologic technologist may perform professional duties.
Question 7: A patient is ordered NPO after midnight before a morning barium enema. The purpose of this instruction is to:
- Reduce radiation dose to the GI tract
- Ensure the colon is adequately prepared and free of residual material (Correct answer)
- Prevent a contrast reaction
- Allow the patient to receive conscious sedation
Correct answer: Ensure the colon is adequately prepared and free of residual material
NPO status combined with bowel prep ensures the colon is clear of fecal material, which would obscure pathology on a barium enema exam.
During a radiographic procedure, the patient suddenly becomes unresponsive and pulseless.
After activating the emergency response system, the NEXT step is: