ARRT Computed Tomography (CT) Certification Examination — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Multiplanar reformation (MPR) in CT refers to:

Reconstructing axial images into coronal, sagittal, or oblique planes (Correct answer)
Subtracting pre-contrast from post-contrast images
Applying color to CT images based on Hounsfield units
Generating 3D surface models from volumetric data

Correct answer: Reconstructing axial images into coronal, sagittal, or oblique planes

MPR uses the volumetric CT dataset to create reformatted images in any anatomical plane without additional radiation exposure to the patient.

Question 2: Which of the following patient populations has the HIGHEST radiosensitivity?

Fetuses and children under 5 years of age (Correct answer)
Adult males aged 40-60
Pregnant women in the third trimester
Elderly patients over 75

Correct answer: Fetuses and children under 5 years of age

Fetuses and young children are most radiosensitive due to rapidly dividing cells and longer life expectancy over which stochastic effects can manifest.

Question 3: Which of the following would trigger an automatic review by the ARRT Ethics Review Committee?

A technologist changing their employer
A program director retiring
A credential holder being convicted of a felony (Correct answer)
A technologist failing to submit CE on time

Correct answer: A credential holder being convicted of a felony

A felony conviction is a serious ethics matter that ARRT's Ethics Review Committee must evaluate to determine whether the credential can be maintained.

Question 4: Which of the following best explains why ARRT periodically revises its CT examination content specifications?

To increase examination difficulty and reduce pass rates
To match content used by competing certification bodies
To satisfy JRCERT annual audit requirements
To align the examination with evolving clinical practice identified through practice analysis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To align the examination with evolving clinical practice identified through practice analysis

ARRT updates content specifications based on practice analysis data to ensure examinations reflect what entry-level technologists actually need to know in current clinical settings.

Question 5: What is a SITREP?

A situation report providing current status to command (Correct answer)
A training exercise
A supply request
An intelligence brief

Correct answer: A situation report providing current status to command

SITREP (Situation Report) provides commanders with timely information about the current operational situation.

Question 6: A CT abdomen in a trauma patient shows high-density fluid in the hepatorenal space (Morison's pouch). What does this indicate?

Lymphocele
Hemoperitoneum (Correct answer)
Biliary leak
Physiologic peritoneal fluid

Correct answer: Hemoperitoneum

High-attenuation free fluid (>30 HU) in Morison's pouch following trauma indicates hemoperitoneum from solid organ or vascular injury.

Question 7: What is the window level and window width on CT images?

Patient positioning parameters
Settings that control the brightness and contrast of displayed images (Correct answer)
Scan speed controls
Physical measurements of the CT scanner

Correct answer: Settings that control the brightness and contrast of displayed images

Window level sets the center brightness (what HU appears as middle gray) and window width controls contrast range (how many HUs span from black to white).

Question 8: A patient presents with acute vision loss. CT brain shows hyperdensity in the basilar artery. What does this finding represent?

Atherosclerotic calcification
Acute thrombosis of the basilar artery (Correct answer)
Basilar artery aneurysm
Normal flow-related artifact

Correct answer: Acute thrombosis of the basilar artery

The 'dense basilar artery sign' on non-contrast CT indicates acute thromboembolism and is a CT marker of posterior circulation stroke.

Question 9: What is a key requirement related to clinical experience for ARRT CT certification eligibility?

Attend a CT-specific conference or seminar
Work in a CT department for a minimum of one year
Perform at least 10 supervised CT scans
Document and complete a set of clinical competencies in CT imaging (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Document and complete a set of clinical competencies in CT imaging

A crucial requirement for ARRT CT certification is demonstrating practical proficiency through documented clinical experience. Candidates must complete a specified set of clinical competencies, which involve performing and documenting various CT procedures under supervision. This ensures they have hands-on experience and can safely and effectively operate CT equipment.

Question 10: What is the minimum passing score typically required on the ARRT CT certification examination?

68
75
85
The ARRT uses a scaled score, not a percentage (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The ARRT uses a scaled score, not a percentage

ARRT reports exam results as a scaled score rather than a raw percentage, with 75 being the passing scaled score.

Question 11: What does the term 'half-scan reconstruction' refer to in CT?

Using 180° + fan angle of data instead of a full 360° to reduce motion artifact (Correct answer)
Reconstructing only half the detector channels
Reducing matrix size by half to speed processing
Acquiring data with only half normal mAs

Correct answer: Using 180° + fan angle of data instead of a full 360° to reduce motion artifact

Half-scan reconstruction uses approximately 180° + fan beam angle of data, which can reduce cardiac or other motion artifacts by shortening effective scan time.

Question 12: Which post-processing technique is most appropriate for evaluating luminal stenosis of the carotid arteries on a CT angiogram?

Multiplanar reformation combined with MIP (Correct answer)
Minimum intensity projection (MinIP)
Standard axial images only
Volume rendering alone

Correct answer: Multiplanar reformation combined with MIP

Combining MPR (which shows vessel walls and plaques in cross-section) with MIP (which shows the lumen in projection) gives the most complete assessment of carotid stenosis.

Question 13: What is HIPAA?

A medical diagnosis code
A type of insurance plan
A hospital ranking system
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act — protects patient privacy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act — protects patient privacy

HIPAA establishes national standards for protecting patient health information, ensuring privacy and security of medical records.

Question 14: What is the primary purpose of the bow-tie filter in a CT scanner?

Remove scatter radiation from the detector
Compensate for the cylindrical shape of patients to reduce peripheral dose (Correct answer)
Increase tube current
Calibrate the detector array

Correct answer: Compensate for the cylindrical shape of patients to reduce peripheral dose

The bow-tie (wedge) filter shapes the beam so less radiation hits the thinner periphery of the patient, reducing dose and preventing detector saturation.

Question 15: A horizontal band of decreased attenuation passing through the posterior fossa on a head CT is a classic example of which artifact?

Beam hardening between the petrous bones (Correct answer)
Ring artifact
Partial volume artifact
Motion artifact from cardiac pulsation

Correct answer: Beam hardening between the petrous bones

The dense petrous temporal bones cause preferential absorption of lower-energy photons, producing a dark band across the posterior fossa known as a beam hardening artifact.

Question 16: 3D volume rendering of CT data allows the display of internal structures through which technique?

Assigning opacity values to voxels based on their Hounsfield units (Correct answer)
Selecting only the highest attenuation voxel per projection ray
Subtracting bone from the dataset
Applying a smooth kernel to the raw data

Correct answer: Assigning opacity values to voxels based on their Hounsfield units

Volume rendering assigns transfer functions that map each HU value to a color and opacity, allowing semi-transparent visualization of multiple tissue types simultaneously.

Question 17: When creating coronal MPR images from a helical chest CT, image quality is best when the original acquisition used:

Large FOV and minimal overlap
Thick slices (5–10 mm) reconstructed at 5 mm intervals
High pitch with standard soft tissue kernel only
Thin slices (≤1 mm) reconstructed at overlapping intervals (0.5–0.7 mm) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Thin slices (≤1 mm) reconstructed at overlapping intervals (0.5–0.7 mm)

Thin, overlapping reconstructions produce near-isotropic voxels that allow high-quality coronal and sagittal reformations without visible stair-step artifacts.

Question 18: What is the primary radiation hazard associated with CT compared to conventional radiography?

Higher peak kilovoltage
Greater secondary radiation reaching personnel in adjacent rooms
Use of radioactive isotopes as contrast agents
Significantly greater patient dose due to multiple rotational acquisitions and extended scan volumes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Significantly greater patient dose due to multiple rotational acquisitions and extended scan volumes

CT delivers substantially higher patient doses than conventional radiography because it involves multiple rotational X-ray acquisitions covering large anatomical volumes.

Question 19: A CT chest in a patient with AIDS shows bilateral ground-glass opacities in a 'bat-wing' distribution. The most likely diagnosis is:

Kaposi sarcoma
Cytomegalovirus pneumonitis
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (Correct answer)
Mycobacterium avium complex

Correct answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

PCP (Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia) classically presents with bilateral perihilar ground-glass opacities in immunocompromised patients.

Question 20: The window level (WL) in CT display refers to:

The minimum threshold for bone segmentation
The center Hounsfield unit value of the displayed grayscale range (Correct answer)
The total range of Hounsfield units shown
The reconstruction matrix size

Correct answer: The center Hounsfield unit value of the displayed grayscale range

Window level sets the midpoint of the HU range being displayed, determining which tissue densities appear as medium gray on the monitor.

Question 21: Which of the following correctly defines 'effective dose' (E) in radiation protection?

The weighted sum of equivalent doses to all irradiated tissues, reflecting overall stochastic risk (Correct answer)
The dose measured at the surface of a standard phantom
The total energy deposited in the patient during a CT scan
The absorbed dose to a single organ multiplied by the quality factor

Correct answer: The weighted sum of equivalent doses to all irradiated tissues, reflecting overall stochastic risk

Effective dose uses tissue weighting factors to sum equivalent doses across organs, yielding a single value (in mSv) that represents whole-body stochastic risk.

Question 22: Which CT quality control phantom is most commonly used to evaluate CT number accuracy, noise, uniformity, and spatial resolution?

AAPM CT performance phantom (Correct answer)
MOSFET dosimetry phantom
Leeds TOR phantom
Alderson Rando phantom

Correct answer: AAPM CT performance phantom

The AAPM CT performance phantom contains inserts for testing multiple image quality parameters including HU accuracy, noise, and spatial resolution.

Question 23: A CT chest post-lobectomy shows a new fluid collection with an air-fluid level adjacent to the bronchial stump. What complication does this suggest?

Normal post-operative change
Pleural effusion
Pulmonary edema
Bronchopleural fistula with empyema (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bronchopleural fistula with empyema

An air-fluid level adjacent to a bronchial stump indicates bronchopleural fistula, allowing air to enter the pleural space, often with secondary empyema.

Question 24: What is a Hounsfield unit?

A quantitative measurement of tissue density on CT images (Correct answer)
A unit of image resolution
A measure of scan speed
A unit of radiation dose

Correct answer: A quantitative measurement of tissue density on CT images

Hounsfield units (HU) measure tissue density on CT, with water at 0 HU, air at -1000 HU, and dense bone at +1000 HU or higher.

Question 25: Which statement best describes an isotropic voxel in CT imaging?

A voxel that contains only one tissue type
A voxel with equal dimensions in x, y, and z axes (Correct answer)
A voxel reconstructed using iterative algorithms
A voxel with maximum attenuation value

Correct answer: A voxel with equal dimensions in x, y, and z axes

Isotropic voxels have equal measurements in all three spatial dimensions, enabling high-quality MPR and 3D reconstructions in any plane without stair-step degradation.

Question 26: Which CT feature differentiates an acute from a chronic subdural hematoma?

Location over the convexity
Mass effect on the brain
Hypodense (low attenuation) appearance of the collection (Correct answer)
Crescent shape

Correct answer: Hypodense (low attenuation) appearance of the collection

Chronic subdural hematomas become hypodense (isodense to CSF) over weeks as hemoglobin degrades, unlike acute hyperdense collections.

Question 27: Which artifact is caused by patient movement during CT data acquisition and appears as blurring or ghosting on the reconstructed image?

Partial volume artifact
Motion artifact (Correct answer)
Aliasing artifact
Cupping artifact

Correct answer: Motion artifact

Motion artifacts result from patient movement during scanning, causing inconsistent data at each projection angle and manifesting as blurring or streaking.

Question 28: Which of the following is a potential benefit of obtaining ARRT CT certification?

A significant reduction in the required continuing education hours
Increased job security and advancement opportunities (Correct answer)
Eligibility for an automatic salary increase
Exemption from state licensure requirements

Correct answer: Increased job security and advancement opportunities

Obtaining ARRT CT certification demonstrates a specialized skill set and commitment to professional standards, which is highly valued by employers. This often translates into increased job security, as certified professionals are preferred, and opens doors to advancement opportunities within the medical imaging field.

Question 29: What is the difference between arteries and veins?

Arteries carry blood away from the heart; veins carry blood toward the heart (Correct answer)
Arteries are only in the lungs
Veins are thicker than arteries
They carry the same blood in the same direction

Correct answer: Arteries carry blood away from the heart; veins carry blood toward the heart

Arteries carry blood away from the heart (usually oxygenated) while veins carry blood toward the heart (usually deoxygenated). Arteries have thicker walls to handle higher pressure.

Question 30: What is the function of epithelial tissue?

To contract and produce movement
To transmit electrical signals
To cover body surfaces, line cavities, and form glands (Correct answer)
To store fat

Correct answer: To cover body surfaces, line cavities, and form glands

Epithelial tissue covers all body surfaces, lines body cavities and organs, and forms glands. It provides protection, absorption, secretion, and sensation.

Question 31: CT of the abdomen shows a 'target sign' (layered bowel wall with alternating attenuation) in the small bowel. This is most consistent with:

Malignant bowel obstruction
Bowel infarction
Intussusception or inflammatory bowel disease with submucosal edema (Correct answer)
Bowel perforation

Correct answer: Intussusception or inflammatory bowel disease with submucosal edema

The CT target sign reflects bowel wall stratification due to submucosal edema or fat, seen in intussusception, Crohn's disease, or ischemia.

Question 32: What is the primary purpose of the ARRT's preapplication review process?

To expedite exam scheduling for experienced technologists
To substitute for clinical competency documentation
To waive the examination fee for qualified applicants
To allow individuals with potential ethics issues to determine eligibility before investing in education (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To allow individuals with potential ethics issues to determine eligibility before investing in education

The preapplication review lets individuals with past ethical issues get a preliminary ruling on eligibility before completing an educational program.

Question 33: On CT spine, which finding is most consistent with a herniated nucleus pulposus at L4-L5 causing left leg radiculopathy?

Central disc bulge at L3-L4
Left paracentral disc extrusion compressing the left L5 nerve root (Correct answer)
Left foraminal stenosis at L3-L4
Right paracentral disc protrusion compressing the L4 nerve root in the lateral recess

Correct answer: Left paracentral disc extrusion compressing the left L5 nerve root

A left paracentral extrusion at L4-L5 compresses the traversing L5 nerve root in the lateral recess, causing ipsilateral radiculopathy.

Question 34: Stochastic effects of radiation are characterized by which of the following?

Severity increasing proportionally with dose above the threshold
A threshold dose below which the effect cannot occur
Occurring only in radiosensitive tissues such as bone marrow
No dose threshold; probability of occurrence increases with dose (Correct answer)

Correct answer: No dose threshold; probability of occurrence increases with dose

Stochastic effects (e.g., radiation-induced cancer) are assumed to have no threshold; their probability, not severity, increases with dose.

Question 35: CT perfusion imaging requires specialized post-processing to generate which type of parametric maps?

Cerebral blood flow, cerebral blood volume, and mean transit time maps (Correct answer)
Hounsfield unit histograms
Standardized uptake value (SUV) maps
Bone mineral density scores

Correct answer: Cerebral blood flow, cerebral blood volume, and mean transit time maps

CT perfusion post-processing applies deconvolution or maximum slope models to time-attenuation curves to produce quantitative maps of CBF, CBV, and MTT.

Question 36: What are the four basic tissue types in the human body?

Brain, heart, lung, and liver
Smooth, rough, dense, and loose
Skin, bone, blood, and fat
Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous

The four fundamental tissue types are epithelial (covering/lining), connective (support/connection), muscle (movement), and nervous (communication/control).

Question 37: What is the significance of ARRT accreditation reciprocity with respect to international technologists seeking U.S. credentials?

Foreign technologists are exempt from the ethics review
Foreign credentials are automatically accepted as equivalent to ARRT certification
ARRT has formal reciprocity agreements with all countries
ARRT does not grant reciprocity; international candidates must meet all ARRT eligibility requirements independently (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ARRT does not grant reciprocity; international candidates must meet all ARRT eligibility requirements independently

ARRT does not have reciprocity agreements with foreign credentialing bodies; all candidates must independently meet ARRT's eligibility and examination requirements.

Question 38: What is the purpose of contrast media in CT scans?

To reduce radiation dose
To make the patient comfortable
To speed up the scan
To enhance the visibility of specific structures and pathology (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To enhance the visibility of specific structures and pathology

Contrast media (dye) enhances the visibility of blood vessels, organs, and abnormalities by changing how X-rays interact with specific tissues.

Question 39: Which technique is most commonly used to reduce metal artifact in CT imaging of patients with hip prostheses?

Using a smaller FOV
Increasing slice thickness
Metal artifact reduction (MAR) software (Correct answer)
Decreasing kVp

Correct answer: Metal artifact reduction (MAR) software

Metal artifact reduction (MAR) algorithms replace corrupted projection data near metal with interpolated data, significantly reducing streaking artifacts.

Question 40: Which CT finding most reliably indicates complicated acute pancreatitis?

Pancreatic enlargement
Peripancreatic fluid collections
Pancreatic necrosis (non-enhancing parenchyma) (Correct answer)
Peripancreatic fat stranding

Correct answer: Pancreatic necrosis (non-enhancing parenchyma)

Pancreatic necrosis, identified as non-enhancing parenchyma after IV contrast, is the defining feature of necrotizing pancreatitis.

Question 41: The 'cupping artifact' in CT, where the center of a uniform object appears less dense than its periphery, is a manifestation of which phenomenon?

Quantum noise
Aliasing
Beam hardening (Correct answer)
Partial volume averaging

Correct answer: Beam hardening

Cupping artifact is a form of beam hardening where the edges of the object appear brighter because the beam hardens less traveling a shorter path length.

Question 42: The windmill artifact seen in helical CT is most commonly associated with which acquisition parameter?

High pitch values (Correct answer)
Large detector collimation
Small reconstruction FOV
Low kVp

Correct answer: High pitch values

Windmill artifacts appear as alternating dark and bright streaks rotating around structures and are caused by the under-sampling that occurs at high pitch values.

Question 43: What documentation does an ARRT candidate typically need to submit to verify clinical competency in CT?

Competency verification signed by a supervising radiologist or qualified technologist (Correct answer)
Employer payroll records
ACR accreditation certificate of the facility
A letter from the state radiology board

Correct answer: Competency verification signed by a supervising radiologist or qualified technologist

Clinical competency must be verified by a supervising qualified professional who can attest that the candidate performed required procedures.

Question 44: In CT angiography post-processing, bone subtraction is performed primarily to:

Correct for beam hardening
Eliminate overlying bone to improve visualization of adjacent vessels (Correct answer)
Remove iodine signal from vessels
Reduce noise in the image

Correct answer: Eliminate overlying bone to improve visualization of adjacent vessels

Bone subtraction algorithms register and subtract non-contrast images from contrast-enhanced images, removing osseous structures that would otherwise obscure adjacent vessels.

Question 45: Which reconstruction kernel (filter) should be chosen to minimize noise when imaging soft tissue structures in the abdomen?

Ultra-high resolution kernel
Smooth or standard soft tissue kernel (Correct answer)
Lung kernel
Bone or edge-enhancing kernel

Correct answer: Smooth or standard soft tissue kernel

Soft tissue kernels apply low-pass filtering that smooths the image and reduces noise, which is appropriate for abdominal soft tissue evaluation.

Question 46: Aliasing artifacts in CT, which appear as fine streaks or Moiré patterns, are caused by which factor?

Insufficient detector sampling (Correct answer)
High kVp settings
Excessive patient size
Incorrect table speed

Correct answer: Insufficient detector sampling

Aliasing artifacts occur when the object being imaged contains spatial frequencies higher than the detector sampling rate can capture, per the Nyquist theorem.

Question 47: What is a nosocomial infection?

A respiratory infection
An infection acquired in a healthcare facility (Correct answer)
A genetic condition
A childhood disease

Correct answer: An infection acquired in a healthcare facility

Nosocomial (healthcare-associated) infections are acquired during the course of receiving medical treatment in a healthcare facility, not present at admission.

Question 48: A candidate fails the ARRT CT examination. What is the minimum waiting period before their first retake?

6 months
2 weeks
3 months (Correct answer)
1 year

Correct answer: 3 months

ARRT requires a 3-month waiting period between examination attempts to allow candidates time for remediation.

Question 49: CT window width (WW) setting controls which aspect of image display?

The overall brightness of the image
The spatial resolution of the image
The range of Hounsfield units displayed as the full gray scale from black to white (Correct answer)
The center Hounsfield unit of the gray scale

Correct answer: The range of Hounsfield units displayed as the full gray scale from black to white

Window width determines the range of CT numbers (HU) mapped to the grayscale; a narrow window increases contrast but limits the HU range displayed.

Question 50: What is the purpose of an emergency action plan?

To schedule daily activities
To assign parking spaces
To manage budgets
To establish procedures for responding to various emergencies (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To establish procedures for responding to various emergencies

Emergency action plans outline specific procedures for different emergency scenarios, ensuring organized, efficient response that protects personnel.

Question 51: What is a Hounsfield unit?

A unit of image resolution
A quantitative measurement of tissue density on CT images (Correct answer)
A unit of radiation dose
A measure of scan speed

Correct answer: A quantitative measurement of tissue density on CT images

Hounsfield units (HU) measure tissue density on CT, with water at 0 HU, air at -1000 HU, and dense bone at +1000 HU or higher.

Question 52: Which of these statements is true about eligibility for ARRT CT certification?

Holding a state radiography license is enough to apply for certification.
Clinical competencies must be completed after passing the CT exam.
Only professionals with a master's degree can apply for CT certification.
Applicants must hold an existing ARRT certification in an eligible primary pathway discipline. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Applicants must hold an existing ARRT certification in an eligible primary pathway discipline.

ARRT CT certification is considered a post-primary certification, meaning it builds upon a foundational credential. Therefore, a prerequisite for applying is holding an active ARRT certification in a primary pathway discipline such as radiography, nuclear medicine technology, or radiation therapy. This ensures applicants have a core understanding of medical imaging principles.

Question 53: A technologist discovers an error in their ARRT certification record. What is the appropriate first step?

File a complaint with the state radiology board
Notify JRCERT of the discrepancy
Retake the examination to establish a new record
Contact ARRT directly to request a correction through official channels (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Contact ARRT directly to request a correction through official channels

ARRT manages its own credential records, so technologists should contact ARRT directly to resolve record discrepancies.

Question 54: Cardiac motion artifacts on coronary CT angiography are primarily reduced by which technique?

Administering iodinated contrast slowly
ECG gating to synchronize data acquisition with the cardiac cycle (Correct answer)
Using maximum mAs
High-pitch helical scanning only

Correct answer: ECG gating to synchronize data acquisition with the cardiac cycle

ECG gating synchronizes CT data acquisition to the relatively motion-free phases of the cardiac cycle (typically mid-diastole), reducing coronary motion artifact.

Question 55: Why is ARRT CT certification important for employers?

It ensures that employees are fully competent in CT procedures and patient care (Correct answer)
It is required by law for all employees working in medical imaging
It allows employers to avoid providing additional training for their staff
It guarantees that employees will work fewer hours

Correct answer: It ensures that employees are fully competent in CT procedures and patient care

For employers, ARRT CT certification serves as a reliable indicator that a technologist possesses the necessary knowledge, skills, and ethical understanding to perform CT procedures safely and effectively. This credential helps ensure high standards of patient care and reduces the need for extensive in-house training on fundamental CT competencies.

Question 56: Which body administers the ARRT CT certification examination at testing centers?

ACR regional offices
Prometric (Correct answer)
JRCERT-affiliated schools
ARRT staff at ARRT headquarters

Correct answer: Prometric

ARRT partners with Prometric to deliver its certification examinations at testing centers nationwide.

Question 57: Which of the following best describes the purpose of ARRT's Standards of Ethics in the accreditation context?

They establish imaging protocols
They outline equipment quality standards
They set radiation dose limits
They define conduct requirements candidates must meet to obtain and maintain credentials (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They define conduct requirements candidates must meet to obtain and maintain credentials

The ARRT Standards of Ethics outline the professional conduct requirements that candidates and credential holders must satisfy.

Question 58: Which phantom is used to measure CTDI100 according to the standard FDA/IEC protocol?

A 20 cm sphere filled with tissue-equivalent material
A 32 cm diameter cylindrical PMMA phantom for head and a 16 cm phantom for body
A water-filled anthropomorphic phantom
A 16 cm diameter PMMA phantom for head and a 32 cm phantom for body (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A 16 cm diameter PMMA phantom for head and a 32 cm phantom for body

The FDA/IEC protocol uses a 16 cm PMMA phantom for head measurements and a 32 cm phantom for body measurements to derive CTDI100.

Question 59: On CT of the head, lenticular (biconvex) hyperdensity is identified adjacent to the temporal bone. What is the most likely cause?

Middle meningeal artery rupture causing epidural hematoma (Correct answer)
Bridging vein rupture causing subdural hematoma
Berry aneurysm rupture
Hypertensive hemorrhage

Correct answer: Middle meningeal artery rupture causing epidural hematoma

Epidural hematomas result from middle meningeal artery injury and form a biconvex hyperdense collection limited by dural attachments at sutures.

Question 60: What is the chain of command?

A type of equipment
The hierarchical structure of authority in a military organization (Correct answer)
A supply system
A combat formation

Correct answer: The hierarchical structure of authority in a military organization

The chain of command is the line of authority along which orders pass from the highest rank to the lowest.

Question 61: Which CT feature of a pulmonary nodule is most associated with malignancy?

Laminated calcification pattern
Stippled central calcification
Spiculated margins with pleural tethering (Correct answer)
Smooth well-defined margins

Correct answer: Spiculated margins with pleural tethering

Spiculated margins with pleural tethering are high-risk features indicating likely malignant invasion of adjacent lung parenchyma.

Question 62: What is the first step in the ARRT CT certification process?

Obtain a recommendation letter from an employer
Submit an online application through the ARRT portal (Correct answer)
Complete the required clinical competencies
Schedule the CT certification exam

Correct answer: Submit an online application through the ARRT portal

The initial step in the ARRT CT certification process, after meeting all prerequisites, is to formally apply. This is done by submitting an online application through the official ARRT website portal. This application initiates the eligibility review and allows candidates to proceed with scheduling their exam.

Question 63: What is homeostasis?

A disease state
The body's ability to maintain stable internal conditions (Correct answer)
An organ system
A type of cell division

Correct answer: The body's ability to maintain stable internal conditions

Homeostasis is the body's dynamic process of maintaining stable internal conditions (temperature, pH, blood sugar) despite external changes.

Question 64: ARRT certification in CT is best described as which type of credential?

Post-primary specialty certification (Correct answer)
Entry-level primary certification
State-issued license
Academic degree credential

Correct answer: Post-primary specialty certification

CT certification is a post-primary specialty credential, meaning it is layered on top of a primary ARRT certification in a related discipline.

Question 65: Which daily CT quality control test verifies that CT numbers (Hounsfield Units) remain accurate and consistent?

Slice thickness verification
Noise index measurement
High-contrast spatial resolution test
CT number accuracy/linearity test (Correct answer)

Correct answer: CT number accuracy/linearity test

The CT number accuracy/linearity test confirms that scanned materials produce the expected HU values, ensuring diagnostic consistency.

Question 66: Under ARRT's Continuing Qualifications Requirements (CQR), what must credential holders demonstrate?

Employer attestation of satisfactory job performance
A passing score on a repeat certification exam every 10 years
Ongoing competency through self-assessment and structured activities related to their discipline (Correct answer)
Completion of a new clinical rotation every 10 years

Correct answer: Ongoing competency through self-assessment and structured activities related to their discipline

CQR requires credential holders to complete self-assessment and structured CE activities demonstrating continued competency in their specialty.

Question 67: On a non-contrast CT of the abdomen, a renal calculus most likely to be missed is composed of which material?

Calcium oxalate
Indinavir (drug-related) (Correct answer)
Struvite
Uric acid

Correct answer: Indinavir (drug-related)

Indinavir stones are radiolucent and have very low Hounsfield units, making them nearly invisible on non-contrast CT.

Question 68: Which of the following is the correct action if a detector ring artifact is identified during a quality control check of the CT scanner?

Decrease the FOV
Recalibrate the detector and notify the medical physicist (Correct answer)
Increase mAs to compensate
Continue scanning and note in the patient report

Correct answer: Recalibrate the detector and notify the medical physicist

A ring artifact indicates a detector calibration issue that must be corrected by recalibration or service; the medical physicist should be notified per QC protocols.

Question 69: What is homeostasis?

A disease state
An organ system
The body's ability to maintain stable internal conditions (Correct answer)
A type of cell division

Correct answer: The body's ability to maintain stable internal conditions

Homeostasis is the body's dynamic process of maintaining stable internal conditions (temperature, pH, blood sugar) despite external changes.

Question 70: What is the function of red blood cells?

To fight infection
To produce hormones
To transport oxygen from lungs to tissues and CO2 back (Correct answer)
To clot blood

Correct answer: To transport oxygen from lungs to tissues and CO2 back

Red blood cells (erythrocytes) contain hemoglobin that binds oxygen in the lungs and delivers it to tissues, then carries carbon dioxide back for exhalation.

Question 71: When a CT scanner undergoes a tube replacement, which quality control step is mandatory before returning the unit to clinical service?

Slice sensitivity profile measurement only
Full calibration and acceptance testing (Correct answer)
Low-contrast detectability test only
Gantry tilt angle verification only

Correct answer: Full calibration and acceptance testing

After a major component replacement such as an X-ray tube, full calibration and acceptance testing must be performed to ensure the scanner meets all performance specifications.

Question 72: Which section of the ARRT application requires disclosure of prior criminal history and ethics violations?

Reference section
Clinical competency section
Ethics section (Correct answer)
Structured education section

Correct answer: Ethics section

The ethics section of the ARRT application requires applicants to disclose criminal history, professional disciplinary actions, and other relevant ethical matters.

Question 73: What is the purpose of contrast media in CT scans?

To reduce radiation dose
To speed up the scan
To make the patient comfortable
To enhance the visibility of specific structures and pathology (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To enhance the visibility of specific structures and pathology

Contrast media (dye) enhances the visibility of blood vessels, organs, and abnormalities by changing how X-rays interact with specific tissues.

Question 74: What is the difference between arteries and veins?

Arteries are only in the lungs
Arteries carry blood away from the heart; veins carry blood toward the heart (Correct answer)
Veins are thicker than arteries
They carry the same blood in the same direction

Correct answer: Arteries carry blood away from the heart; veins carry blood toward the heart

Arteries carry blood away from the heart (usually oxygenated) while veins carry blood toward the heart (usually deoxygenated). Arteries have thicker walls to handle higher pressure.

Question 75: What is the function of red blood cells?

To fight infection
To clot blood
To produce hormones
To transport oxygen from lungs to tissues and CO2 back (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To transport oxygen from lungs to tissues and CO2 back

Red blood cells (erythrocytes) contain hemoglobin that binds oxygen in the lungs and delivers it to tissues, then carries carbon dioxide back for exhalation.

Question 76: What is the ALARA principle in radiation safety?

As Low As Reasonably Achievable — minimize radiation exposure (Correct answer)
Always Lock And Restrict Access
All Labs And Rooms Assessed
Automated Limiting Adjustment for Radiation Applications

Correct answer: As Low As Reasonably Achievable — minimize radiation exposure

ALARA means keeping radiation doses as low as reasonably achievable while still obtaining diagnostic-quality images, balancing benefit against risk.

Question 77: What is the primary advantage of CT over conventional X-ray?

CT is cheaper
CT takes less time
CT uses no radiation
CT provides cross-sectional images with superior soft tissue contrast (Correct answer)

Correct answer: CT provides cross-sectional images with superior soft tissue contrast

CT provides detailed cross-sectional images with much better soft tissue contrast resolution than conventional X-rays, allowing visualization of subtle differences between tissues.

Question 78: How often must ARRT-certified technologists complete continuing education to maintain their credentials?

Every 5 years
Every year
Every 3 years
Every 2 years (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Every 2 years

ARRT requires 24 continuing education credits every 2 years to maintain certification.

Question 79: When noise in a CT image is described as 'quantum mottle,' it most directly reflects:

Mechanical vibration of the gantry
Electronic noise in the detector
Software processing errors
Statistical variation in the number of photons detected (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Statistical variation in the number of photons detected

Quantum mottle (quantum noise) results from statistical variations in photon fluence reaching the detector, following Poisson statistics.

Question 80: What does OPSEC stand for?

Operating System Executive
Operational Section
Optional Security
Operations Security (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Operations Security

OPSEC protects critical information from adversaries by identifying and safeguarding sensitive data.

Question 81: CT of the abdomen in a cirrhotic patient shows multiple enhancing nodules in the liver. Which additional finding would most strongly suggest hepatocellular carcinoma over regenerative nodules?

Homogeneous enhancement in all phases
Nodule size less than 1 cm
T2 hypointensity on MRI
Washout appearance on delayed phase imaging (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Washout appearance on delayed phase imaging

Arterial enhancement followed by washout on portal venous or delayed phase is the LI-RADS CT hallmark distinguishing HCC from benign regenerative nodules.

Question 82: The spatial resolution of a CT image is primarily limited by which factor?

Room temperature
Type of reconstruction filter used alone
Focal spot size and detector aperture (Correct answer)
Patient age

Correct answer: Focal spot size and detector aperture

Focal spot size and detector cell aperture are the primary hardware factors limiting spatial resolution in CT.

Question 83: Quantum (photon) noise in CT images is most visible under which conditions?

Low mAs or large patient size (Correct answer)
High mAs and thin slices
High kVp and wide window
Fast pitch and narrow FOV

Correct answer: Low mAs or large patient size

Quantum noise increases when fewer photons reach the detectors, which occurs with low mAs settings or when X-rays are attenuated by a large patient.

Question 84: What does a noise index (NI) setting in automatic tube current modulation (ATCM) control?

The target image noise level that drives mA adjustments (Correct answer)
The number of reconstruction iterations applied
The maximum allowed kVp during the scan
The amount of bowtie filter attenuation

Correct answer: The target image noise level that drives mA adjustments

The noise index defines the target standard deviation of image noise; ATCM raises or lowers mA to achieve this noise target based on patient attenuation.

Question 85: What is the purpose of a risk assessment?

To track inventory levels
To identify potential hazards and determine mitigation measures (Correct answer)
To assign work shifts
To calculate financial budgets

Correct answer: To identify potential hazards and determine mitigation measures

Risk assessments identify potential hazards, evaluate the likelihood and severity of harm, and determine appropriate controls to minimize risk.

Question 86: A technologist is scanning a patient with metal hip implants. To reduce dose while managing metal artifact, which approach is MOST appropriate?

Switch to a lower kVp to increase contrast resolution
Skip the hip region entirely regardless of clinical indication
Use metal artifact reduction (MAR) software at standard dose rather than routinely increasing mAs (Correct answer)
Double the mAs in the hip region to overpower artifacts

Correct answer: Use metal artifact reduction (MAR) software at standard dose rather than routinely increasing mAs

Metal artifact reduction software effectively manages implant artifacts at standard dose; routinely increasing mAs adds unnecessary patient dose without eliminating artifacts.

Question 87: What is the window level and window width on CT images?

Patient positioning parameters
Scan speed controls
Physical measurements of the CT scanner
Settings that control the brightness and contrast of displayed images (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Settings that control the brightness and contrast of displayed images

Window level sets the center brightness (what HU appears as middle gray) and window width controls contrast range (how many HUs span from black to white).

Question 88: What is the primary advantage of CT over conventional X-ray?

CT is cheaper
CT takes less time
CT provides cross-sectional images with superior soft tissue contrast (Correct answer)
CT uses no radiation

Correct answer: CT provides cross-sectional images with superior soft tissue contrast

CT provides detailed cross-sectional images with much better soft tissue contrast resolution than conventional X-rays, allowing visualization of subtle differences between tissues.

Question 89: Which of the following is an advantage of holding ARRT CT certification when seeking a job?

It demonstrates specialized knowledge and commitment to the field, making you a more competitive candidate (Correct answer)
It allows you to bypass the interview process
It limits you to working only in CT imaging departments
It guarantees immediate employment at any facility

Correct answer: It demonstrates specialized knowledge and commitment to the field, making you a more competitive candidate

In a competitive job market, ARRT CT certification acts as a powerful differentiator. It signals to potential employers that a candidate possesses specialized knowledge, has met national standards, and is dedicated to their profession, significantly enhancing their competitiveness for CT technologist positions.

Question 90: Respiratory motion artifacts on chest CT can best be minimized by:

Using breath-hold technique during acquisition (Correct answer)
Increasing kVp
Increasing slice thickness
Widening the display window

Correct answer: Using breath-hold technique during acquisition

Instructing the patient to suspend respiration during CT acquisition eliminates breathing motion, preventing blurring and step artifacts in the chest.

Question 91: Which feature on CT best distinguishes a benign adrenal adenoma from a metastasis?

Attenuation less than 10 HU on non-contrast CT (Correct answer)
Lesion size greater than 3 cm
Round morphology
Homogeneous enhancement pattern

Correct answer: Attenuation less than 10 HU on non-contrast CT

Adrenal adenomas are lipid-rich and typically measure less than 10 HU on unenhanced CT, a reliable distinguishing feature from metastases.

Question 92: What are the principles of mission command?

Speed, power, aggression
Technology, firepower, logistics
Rank, authority, obedience
Competence, mutual trust, shared understanding, commander's intent (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Competence, mutual trust, shared understanding, commander's intent

Mission command empowers subordinates through trust, shared understanding of the commander's intent, and disciplined initiative.

Question 93: What is the recommended frequency for performing a full CT equipment performance evaluation by a qualified medical physicist?

Every five years
Weekly
Annually (Correct answer)
Daily

Correct answer: Annually

ACR and AAPM guidelines recommend a comprehensive CT performance evaluation by a qualified medical physicist at least annually.

Question 94: What is a Hounsfield unit?

A quantitative measurement of tissue density on CT images (Correct answer)
A unit of radiation dose
A measure of scan speed
A unit of image resolution

Correct answer: A quantitative measurement of tissue density on CT images

Hounsfield units (HU) measure tissue density on CT, with water at 0 HU, air at -1000 HU, and dense bone at +1000 HU or higher.

Question 95: What is the correct order for donning PPE?

Mask, gloves, gown, eye protection
Any order is acceptable
Gloves, gown, mask, eye protection
Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves

The correct donning sequence is gown first, then mask/respirator, eye protection/face shield, and gloves last. This prevents contamination during application.

Question 96: Which organization is primarily responsible for accrediting radiologic technology programs in the United States?

ACR-AAPM
JRCERT (Correct answer)
ARRT
ACR

Correct answer: JRCERT

The Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology (JRCERT) is the primary accrediting body for radiologic technology programs.

Question 97: Which factor does NOT directly influence the CTDI_vol value displayed on the CT console?

kVp
Reconstruction kernel (filter) (Correct answer)
Pitch
Tube current (mAs)

Correct answer: Reconstruction kernel (filter)

Reconstruction kernel is a post-processing parameter applied after data acquisition and does not change the radiation output; CTDI_vol reflects acquisition parameters only.

Question 98: What is the primary advantage of CT over conventional X-ray?

CT provides cross-sectional images with superior soft tissue contrast (Correct answer)
CT takes less time
CT uses no radiation
CT is cheaper

Correct answer: CT provides cross-sectional images with superior soft tissue contrast

CT provides detailed cross-sectional images with much better soft tissue contrast resolution than conventional X-rays, allowing visualization of subtle differences between tissues.

Question 99: How often must an ARRT CT certification be renewed?

Every 2 years (Correct answer)
Every 3 years
Every 5 years
Every 10 years

Correct answer: Every 2 years

ARRT CT certification, like most ARRT credentials, requires regular renewal to ensure technologists maintain current knowledge and skills. Certified professionals must renew their certification every two years. This biennial renewal process typically involves meeting continuing education requirements.

Question 100: How many questions are typically included in the ARRT CT certification exam?

200
150 (Correct answer)
100
250

Correct answer: 150

The ARRT CT certification exam typically consists of 150 questions. This number includes both scored and unscored pilot questions, designed to comprehensively assess a candidate's knowledge across various domains of computed tomography. Candidates are given a specific time limit to complete all questions.

Question 101: Curved planar reformation (CPR) in CT is most useful for:

Subtracting bone from CT angiography images
Generating endoscopic views of hollow organs
Creating color-coded perfusion maps
Straightening and displaying tortuous structures such as vessels or the spine along their entire length (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Straightening and displaying tortuous structures such as vessels or the spine along their entire length

CPR follows a user-defined curved path through the volume dataset to display a tortuous structure in a single unfolded plane, useful for coronary arteries or the aorta.

Question 102: In CT, the term 'pitch' for single-slice CT is calculated as:

Detector width / field of view
Table speed / gantry rotation time
Table feed per rotation / slice thickness (Correct answer)
kVp / mAs

Correct answer: Table feed per rotation / slice thickness

Pitch = table feed per 360° rotation divided by the nominal slice thickness; a pitch >1 means gaps exist between consecutive slices.

Question 103: For a pediatric CT head scan, compared to an adult protocol, the technologist should generally:

Reduce mAs significantly because children are more radiosensitive and smaller (Correct answer)
Increase kVp to 140 kV to penetrate the skull
Extend scan length to cover the entire neuraxis
Use the same mAs to ensure adequate image quality

Correct answer: Reduce mAs significantly because children are more radiosensitive and smaller

Children have greater radiosensitivity and smaller body dimensions, so pediatric CT protocols use substantially lower mAs than adult protocols.

Question 104: Which of the following best describes an out-of-field artifact in CT?

Streaking caused by anatomy extending beyond the scan FOV (Correct answer)
Ring caused by detector failure
Blurring from respiratory motion
Noise from low mAs

Correct answer: Streaking caused by anatomy extending beyond the scan FOV

Out-of-field artifacts occur when part of the patient's anatomy lies outside the calibrated scan FOV, causing truncation of projection data and bright peripheral streaks.

Question 105: An ARRT credential holder moves to a state that requires separate state licensure. Which of the following is correct?

State licensure is separate from ARRT certification and must be obtained independently (Correct answer)
JRCERT issues the state license upon request
ARRT certification automatically fulfills state licensure requirements in all states
The technologist must retake the ARRT exam for state purposes

Correct answer: State licensure is separate from ARRT certification and must be obtained independently

ARRT certification and state licensure are distinct; technologists must comply with individual state requirements separately.

Question 106: The annual occupational dose limit for the lens of the eye, as updated by NCRP Report No. 172, is:

20 mSv (Correct answer)
50 mSv
150 mSv
5 mSv

Correct answer: 20 mSv

NCRP Report No. 172 (2016) lowered the recommended annual occupational lens dose limit to 20 mSv/year averaged over 5 years, consistent with ICRP 103.

Question 107: What should a candidate do immediately after passing the ARRT CT certification exam?

Submit documentation of continuing education hours
Wait for the official certification certificate to be mailed (Correct answer)
Begin their recertification process
Apply for state licensure in radiology

Correct answer: Wait for the official certification certificate to be mailed

After successfully passing the ARRT CT certification exam, the immediate next step for a candidate is to await the official documentation. The ARRT will process the results and mail the certification certificate to the newly certified technologist. This certificate serves as formal proof of their credential.

Question 108: What type of artifact appears as bright or dark streaks radiating from high-density objects like metal implants in CT images?

Ring artifact
Partial volume artifact
Motion artifact
Beam hardening artifact (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Beam hardening artifact

Beam hardening artifacts appear as streaks or dark bands radiating from dense metallic objects because lower-energy photons are preferentially absorbed.

Question 109: How does ARRT CT certification affect a technologist’s earning potential?

It provides a one-time bonus but no long-term salary benefits
Certified technologists typically earn higher salaries compared to non-certified ones (Correct answer)
It does not affect salary in any way
It may result in a pay cut, depending on the region

Correct answer: Certified technologists typically earn higher salaries compared to non-certified ones

ARRT CT certification signifies a higher level of specialized training and expertise, which is often reflected in compensation. Employers recognize the value of certified professionals, leading to certified technologists typically commanding higher salaries and better benefits compared to their non-certified counterparts.

Question 110: CT calcium scoring of the coronary arteries uses which post-processing method to quantify calcification?

Agatston scoring based on lesion area and peak Hounsfield unit density (Correct answer)
Subtraction of non-contrast from contrast images
Volume rendering with opacity mapping
MIP projection over the cardiac cycle

Correct answer: Agatston scoring based on lesion area and peak Hounsfield unit density

Agatston scoring multiplies the area of each calcified lesion by a density factor based on peak HU (1–4 scale), then sums all lesions to yield the total calcium score.

Question 111: Which factor is evaluated by the modulation transfer function (MTF) in CT quality control?

CT number linearity
Low-contrast detectability
Image noise levels
High-contrast spatial resolution (Correct answer)

Correct answer: High-contrast spatial resolution

The MTF describes how faithfully the CT system reproduces spatial detail, directly measuring high-contrast spatial resolution performance.

Question 112: Under ARRT policy, which of the following represents a 'primary pathway' to CT certification?

Holding an ARRT credential in a related discipline and meeting CT requirements (Correct answer)
Passing a state licensing exam only
Completing 40 hours of online CT training
Graduating from any 4-year college program

Correct answer: Holding an ARRT credential in a related discipline and meeting CT requirements

The primary pathway requires holding an ARRT credential in a related radiologic science discipline and fulfilling CT-specific education and clinical requirements.

Question 113: What is the largest organ in the human body?

Liver
Skin (Correct answer)
Heart
Brain

Correct answer: Skin

The skin is the largest organ, covering approximately 20 square feet in adults and weighing about 8 pounds. It serves as the primary barrier against the environment.

Question 114: What is the NATO phonetic alphabet letter for 'B'?

Bravo (Correct answer)
Boy
Baker
Beta

Correct answer: Bravo

In the NATO phonetic alphabet, 'B' is represented by 'Bravo.' This ensures clear radio communication.

Question 115: What does informed consent require?

Explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives to the patient (Correct answer)
Family approval only
Getting any signature on a form
Verbal agreement only

Correct answer: Explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives to the patient

Informed consent requires that patients understand the proposed procedure, its risks and benefits, alternatives, and have the opportunity to ask questions before agreeing.

Question 116: A CT chest shows multiple bilateral pulmonary nodules of varying sizes in a 'cannonball' distribution. This pattern is most associated with:

Primary bronchogenic carcinoma
Sarcoidosis
Miliary tuberculosis
Hematogenous pulmonary metastases (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hematogenous pulmonary metastases

Large, well-defined, randomly distributed bilateral nodules in a cannonball pattern are classic for hematogenous metastases from extrapulmonary primary cancers.

Question 117: What does CT stand for in medical imaging?

Clinical Therapy
Central Treatment
Cardiac Testing
Computed Tomography (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Computed Tomography

CT (Computed Tomography) uses X-ray technology and computer processing to create detailed cross-sectional images of the body.

Question 118: What are the four basic tissue types in the human body?

Brain, heart, lung, and liver
Skin, bone, blood, and fat
Smooth, rough, dense, and loose
Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous

The four fundamental tissue types are epithelial (covering/lining), connective (support/connection), muscle (movement), and nervous (communication/control).

Question 119: The inverse square law states that radiation intensity is related to distance by which relationship?

Intensity decreases linearly with distance
Intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance (Correct answer)
Intensity is inversely proportional to the cube of the distance
Intensity is directly proportional to distance

Correct answer: Intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance

The inverse square law: I ∝ 1/d², meaning doubling the distance from the source reduces intensity to one-quarter of its original value.

Question 120: What happens if an ARRT CT-certified technologist fails to meet the recertification requirements?

They must apply for a temporary certification until they meet the requirements
They receive a grace period to meet the requirements without penalty
Their certification status becomes inactive, and they cannot work as a CT technologist (Correct answer)
Their certification is automatically revoked, and they must retake the certification exam

Correct answer: Their certification status becomes inactive, and they cannot work as a CT technologist

Failure to meet ARRT CT recertification requirements, such as completing the necessary continuing education, results in the certification becoming inactive. An inactive certification means the individual is no longer recognized as an ARRT-certified CT technologist and cannot legally or professionally practice under that credential.

Question 121: Minimum intensity projection (MinIP) post-processing is particularly useful for displaying which anatomical structures?

Contrast-enhanced blood vessels
Dense bone and calcifications
Air-filled airways and lung parenchyma (Correct answer)
Solid abdominal organs

Correct answer: Air-filled airways and lung parenchyma

MinIP projects the lowest attenuation voxel along each ray, making it ideal for displaying air-containing structures like the tracheobronchial tree or emphysematous lung.

Question 122: What is the purpose of contrast media in CT scans?

To reduce radiation dose
To enhance the visibility of specific structures and pathology (Correct answer)
To make the patient comfortable
To speed up the scan

Correct answer: To enhance the visibility of specific structures and pathology

Contrast media (dye) enhances the visibility of blood vessels, organs, and abnormalities by changing how X-rays interact with specific tissues.

Question 123: A contrast CT of the abdomen shows a 'whirl sign' in the mesentery. What condition does this indicate?

Bowel perforation
Mesenteric adenitis
Closed-loop small bowel obstruction with volvulus (Correct answer)
Appendicitis

Correct answer: Closed-loop small bowel obstruction with volvulus

The whirl sign on CT represents twisting of mesenteric vessels and bowel loops, indicating volvulus typically causing closed-loop obstruction.

Question 124: CT of the knee shows a hyperdense line through the distal femoral epiphysis crossing the growth plate. This finding represents:

Stress fracture
Salter-Harris type II fracture (Correct answer)
Osteochondral defect
Physeal bar formation

Correct answer: Salter-Harris type II fracture

A Salter-Harris type II fracture extends through the physis and exits through the metaphysis, the most common physeal injury type.

Question 125: What is preventive maintenance?

Fixing equipment after it breaks
Cleaning only
Regular scheduled maintenance to prevent equipment failure (Correct answer)
Replacing all equipment annually

Correct answer: Regular scheduled maintenance to prevent equipment failure

Preventive maintenance involves regular, scheduled inspections and servicing to prevent unexpected breakdowns and extend equipment life.

Question 126: Which CT post-processing technique displays only voxels above a selected threshold, making it useful for 3D visualization of bones and vascular structures?

Surface shaded display (SSD)
Volume rendering (VR)
Maximum intensity projection (MIP) (Correct answer)
Multiplanar reformation (MPR)

Correct answer: Maximum intensity projection (MIP)

Maximum intensity projection (MIP) selects and displays the highest attenuation voxel along each ray through the dataset, ideal for visualizing contrast-enhanced vessels or calcifications.

Question 127: On CT angiography of the aorta, which finding is pathognomonic of an aortic dissection?

An intimal flap separating true and false lumens (Correct answer)
Mural thrombus
Aortic dilation greater than 5 cm
Periaortic hematoma

Correct answer: An intimal flap separating true and false lumens

An intimal flap creating two distinct lumens (true and false) is the defining CT finding of aortic dissection.

Question 128: Which of the following activities can count toward the continuing education credits for ARRT CT certification?

Completing a patient care workshop
Attending an industry conference
All of the above (Correct answer)
Publishing a research article in a professional journal

Correct answer: All of the above

ARRT accepts a wide range of activities for continuing education (CE) credits, provided they are relevant to the radiologic sciences. This includes attending industry conferences, participating in patient care workshops, and even publishing research articles in professional journals. The goal is to encourage diverse learning that enhances professional practice.

Question 129: Which of the following best describes 'overranging' (z-overscanning) in helical CT?

Applying too wide a display window
Using a higher kVp than needed
Extra rotations acquired beyond the requested scan range to complete helical reconstruction (Correct answer)
Scanning beyond the prescribed FOV diameter

Correct answer: Extra rotations acquired beyond the requested scan range to complete helical reconstruction

Overranging refers to the additional tube rotations at the start and end of a helical scan needed to reconstruct the first and last requested slices, increasing dose.

Question 130: A patient with known Crohn's disease undergoes CT enterography. Which finding most specifically indicates active inflammation?

Ascites
Mesenteric lymphadenopathy alone
Non-enhancing bowel wall thickening
Bowel wall thickening with mural hyperenhancement and the comb sign (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bowel wall thickening with mural hyperenhancement and the comb sign

Active Crohn's disease shows mural hyperenhancement, wall thickening, and engorged vasa recta (comb sign) on CT enterography.

Question 131: Which of the following CE activities would NOT qualify toward ARRT renewal requirements?

Publishing a peer-reviewed article in a radiology journal
Serving as a JRCERT program reviewer
Attending an ASRT-approved radiology continuing education course
Completing a vendor-sponsored equipment demonstration with no educational content (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Completing a vendor-sponsored equipment demonstration with no educational content

Vendor demonstrations without structured educational content do not meet ARRT's CE requirements; activities must have identifiable learning objectives.

Question 132: What is the first priority in any emergency situation?

Ensure the safety of all personnel (Correct answer)
Write a report
Contact the media
Save equipment

Correct answer: Ensure the safety of all personnel

In any emergency, the first priority is always the safety and well-being of all personnel. Equipment and materials can be replaced; lives cannot.

Question 133: What is the role of the ARRT Board of Trustees in the accreditation and credentialing process?

They directly score individual certification examinations
They issue state radiologic technology licenses
They perform on-site inspections of clinical training sites
They govern ARRT policy, including eligibility requirements and ethical standards (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They govern ARRT policy, including eligibility requirements and ethical standards

The ARRT Board of Trustees is the governing body responsible for setting policy, eligibility criteria, and ethical standards for the organization.

Question 134: What is the ALARA principle in radiation safety?

As Low As Reasonably Achievable — minimize radiation exposure (Correct answer)
Always Lock And Restrict Access
All Labs And Rooms Assessed
Automated Limiting Adjustment for Radiation Applications

Correct answer: As Low As Reasonably Achievable — minimize radiation exposure

ALARA means keeping radiation doses as low as reasonably achievable while still obtaining diagnostic-quality images, balancing benefit against risk.

Question 135: What is the primary purpose of selecting a small reconstruction FOV (field of view) during CT image reconstruction?

To reduce patient dose
To improve spatial resolution by sampling more detail per pixel (Correct answer)
To increase the pixel size for better soft tissue contrast
To decrease image noise

Correct answer: To improve spatial resolution by sampling more detail per pixel

A smaller reconstruction FOV divides the imaged area into the same matrix of pixels, resulting in smaller pixel size and therefore higher spatial resolution of the region of interest.

Question 136: What is the Continuing Qualifications Requirements (CQR) process for ARRT CT certification?

A self-assessment and continuing education program every 10 years (Correct answer)
A mandatory exam that must be passed every 5 years
A review of clinical competencies performed every year
A recertification application process every 5 years

Correct answer: A self-assessment and continuing education program every 10 years

The Continuing Qualifications Requirements (CQR) is a distinct process from the biennial CE requirements. For ARRT CT certification, CQR involves a self-assessment and targeted continuing education program that must be completed every 10 years. This ensures long-term competency and addresses any identified knowledge gaps.

Question 137: In CT, the filtered back projection (FBP) reconstruction algorithm applies a mathematical filter primarily to:

Remove quantum noise before reconstruction
Align misregistered projection data
Correct for star artifacts inherent in simple back projection (Correct answer)
Segment soft tissue from bone

Correct answer: Correct for star artifacts inherent in simple back projection

FBP applies a ramp or other convolution filter to projection data before back-projecting to eliminate the blurring ('star artifact') produced by simple back projection.

Question 138: What does CT stand for in medical imaging?

Cardiac Testing
Computed Tomography (Correct answer)
Clinical Therapy
Central Treatment

Correct answer: Computed Tomography

CT (Computed Tomography) uses X-ray technology and computer processing to create detailed cross-sectional images of the body.

Question 139: What is the primary purpose of performing a daily air calibration (warm-up scan) on a CT scanner?

To verify gantry tilt accuracy
To test the table weight limit
To measure patient dose output
To calibrate detector channels and normalize dark current (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To calibrate detector channels and normalize dark current

The daily air calibration normalizes detector channel responses and corrects for dark current drift, maintaining uniform image quality.

Question 140: What is the largest organ in the human body?

Skin (Correct answer)
Heart
Liver
Brain

Correct answer: Skin

The skin is the largest organ, covering approximately 20 square feet in adults and weighing about 8 pounds. It serves as the primary barrier against the environment.

Question 141: What is the function of epithelial tissue?

To contract and produce movement
To transmit electrical signals
To cover body surfaces, line cavities, and form glands (Correct answer)
To store fat

Correct answer: To cover body surfaces, line cavities, and form glands

Epithelial tissue covers all body surfaces, lines body cavities and organs, and forms glands. It provides protection, absorption, secretion, and sensation.

Question 142: A CT technologist notices the dose reference level (DRL) for a routine chest CT is being routinely exceeded. The BEST first step is to:

Review and optimize the scan protocol to determine if dose can be reduced without compromising diagnostic quality (Correct answer)
Report the finding only to the radiologist and take no further action
Continue scanning since DRLs are not legally binding limits
Immediately halve the mAs for all chest CT exams

Correct answer: Review and optimize the scan protocol to determine if dose can be reduced without compromising diagnostic quality

DRLs serve as benchmarks; exceeding them triggers a protocol review to identify optimization opportunities while preserving diagnostic image quality.

Question 143: Under NRC regulations, which of the following events involving a CT scanner MUST be reported as a medical event?

Using a slightly higher mAs than the standard protocol
A scan performed 2 cm longer than prescribed due to patient movement
Scanning without verbal confirmation of the patient's name
Delivery of a dose differing from the prescribed dose by more than 50 mSv effective dose or 500 mSv to an organ when not due to patient condition (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Delivery of a dose differing from the prescribed dose by more than 50 mSv effective dose or 500 mSv to an organ when not due to patient condition

A medical event under 10 CFR 35.3045 requires reporting when the wrong patient receives a dose, or dose differs from the prescribed dose by >50 mSv effective dose or >500 mSv to any organ.

Question 144: CT of the neck in a patient with a palpable mass shows a cystic lesion at the angle of the mandible deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. This is most consistent with:

Thyroglossal duct cyst
Dermoid cyst
Branchial cleft cyst (Correct answer)
Lymphatic malformation

Correct answer: Branchial cleft cyst

Branchial cleft cysts characteristically appear as unilocular cystic masses at the angle of the mandible adjacent to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.

Question 145: Which category of ARRT continuing education credit requires direct patient care activities or case-based learning?

Category B
Category A (Correct answer)
Category C
Category D

Correct answer: Category A

ARRT Category A credits are structured learning activities, often directly tied to clinical or patient-care-relevant content.

Question 146: How is the ARRT Computed Tomography (CT) certification exam administered?

Through online remote proctoring
At a Pearson VUE testing center (Correct answer)
In-person at a hospital or clinic
During an in-person workshop or seminar

Correct answer: At a Pearson VUE testing center

The ARRT Computed Tomography (CT) certification exam is administered through a professional testing service. Candidates are required to schedule and take their exam at an authorized Pearson VUE testing center. These centers provide a standardized, secure, and proctored environment for examinations.

Question 147: What is the minimum passing score for the ARRT CT certification exam?

75 (Correct answer)
65
80
70

Correct answer: 75

To successfully pass the ARRT CT certification exam, candidates must achieve a scaled score of 75 or higher. This score represents the minimum level of competency required by the ARRT to demonstrate proficiency in computed tomography. Scores are scaled to ensure fairness across different exam forms.

Question 148: On a CT scanner, what does image uniformity testing evaluate?

The linearity of dose output versus mAs
The ability to visualize small high-contrast structures
The consistency of CT numbers across the field of view in a homogeneous phantom (Correct answer)
The accuracy of the patient table indexing

Correct answer: The consistency of CT numbers across the field of view in a homogeneous phantom

Image uniformity testing measures whether a homogeneous phantom (e.g., water) produces consistent HU values across the entire reconstructed image.

Question 149: What does PPE stand for?

Post-Production Equipment
Personal Protective Equipment (Correct answer)
Professional Performance Evaluation
Pre-Planning Exercise

Correct answer: Personal Protective Equipment

PPE refers to equipment worn to minimize exposure to hazards, including helmets, gloves, eye protection, and safety boots.

Question 150: What is the ALARA principle in radiation safety?

Always Lock And Restrict Access
All Labs And Rooms Assessed
Automated Limiting Adjustment for Radiation Applications
As Low As Reasonably Achievable — minimize radiation exposure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: As Low As Reasonably Achievable — minimize radiation exposure

ALARA means keeping radiation doses as low as reasonably achievable while still obtaining diagnostic-quality images, balancing benefit against risk.

Question 151: Which statement about the ARRT CT examination content specifications is accurate?

They mirror the ACR practice parameters exactly
They are developed and periodically updated by ARRT based on practice analysis surveys (Correct answer)
They are set by individual state radiation control programs
They have not changed since 2000

Correct answer: They are developed and periodically updated by ARRT based on practice analysis surveys

ARRT periodically conducts practice analysis surveys of working technologists to keep examination content relevant to current clinical practice.

Question 152: What is the fire triangle?

Three fire escape routes
Three fire departments
Three types of fire extinguishers
Heat, fuel, and oxygen — the three elements needed for fire (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Heat, fuel, and oxygen — the three elements needed for fire

The fire triangle illustrates the three elements required for combustion: heat (ignition source), fuel (combustible material), and oxygen. Removing any one element extinguishes the fire.

Question 153: A CT pelvis shows a complex ovarian mass with solid components, calcifications, fat density, and hair-like structures. This is most consistent with:

Mucinous cystadenoma
Endometrioma
Serous cystadenocarcinoma
Mature cystic teratoma (dermoid cyst) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Mature cystic teratoma (dermoid cyst)

Mature cystic teratomas contain fat, calcium, and soft tissue elements (including teeth or hair) from multiple germ cell layers.

Question 154: On a CT KUB (kidneys, ureters, bladder), which stone type appears LEAST dense (lowest Hounsfield units)?

Struvite
Cystine
Uric acid (Correct answer)
Calcium oxalate monohydrate

Correct answer: Uric acid

Uric acid stones are the least dense urinary calculi on CT (100–400 HU), compared to calcium-based stones which exceed 800 HU.

Question 155: To meet ARRT’s ethics requirements, which of the following is necessary?

Pass a background check and provide character references
Take a separate ethics exam during the certification process
Submit a personal statement of professional ethics
Agree to follow the ARRT Standards of Ethics and report any potential violations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Agree to follow the ARRT Standards of Ethics and report any potential violations

The ARRT places a strong emphasis on ethical conduct within the radiologic technology profession. To meet their ethics requirements, candidates must formally agree to adhere to the ARRT Standards of Ethics, which outline professional responsibilities and conduct. This commitment includes reporting any potential violations, upholding the integrity of the profession.

Question 156: Iterative reconstruction (IR) techniques in CT offer which primary advantage over filtered back projection?

Elimination of all artifacts
Faster reconstruction speed
Higher spatial resolution
Reduced image noise at the same or lower radiation dose (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reduced image noise at the same or lower radiation dose

IR algorithms use repeated mathematical modeling of the imaging process to suppress noise, allowing diagnostic image quality to be maintained at reduced mAs and dose.

Question 157: Which educational qualification is acceptable for ARRT CT certification?

Completion of an accredited educational program in computed tomography (Correct answer)
A certification in sonography
A diploma from a CT-specific online program
Any degree in health sciences

Correct answer: Completion of an accredited educational program in computed tomography

For ARRT CT certification, candidates must demonstrate a specific educational background directly relevant to CT imaging. This typically involves completing an accredited educational program that focuses on computed tomography. Such programs ensure candidates acquire the specialized knowledge and skills necessary for safe and effective CT practice.

Question 158: What is the most effective way to prevent healthcare-associated infections?

Cleaning the floor
Taking antibiotics
Wearing gloves at all times
Proper hand hygiene (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Proper hand hygiene

Hand hygiene (washing with soap and water or using alcohol-based hand rub) is the single most effective measure for preventing the spread of infections in healthcare settings.

Question 159: To troubleshoot a CT image showing significant noise (grainy appearance), the technologist should first consider adjusting which parameter?

Reducing matrix size
Decreasing kVp
Increasing pitch
Increasing mAs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Increasing mAs

Increasing mAs raises the number of X-ray photons, directly reducing quantum noise and improving signal-to-noise ratio.

Question 160: Which of the following is NOT a requirement for ARRT CT post-primary certification eligibility?

Holding a current, unrestricted ARRT credential in a qualifying discipline
Graduating from a JRCERT-accredited CT-specific degree program (Correct answer)
Completing required structured education in CT
Meeting clinical experience requirements in CT procedures

Correct answer: Graduating from a JRCERT-accredited CT-specific degree program

CT certification does not require graduation from a JRCERT-accredited CT degree program; structured education and clinical experience through other approved pathways are accepted.

Question 161: Which of the following is a prerequisite for pursuing ARRT Computed Tomography certification?

At least five years of experience in radiologic technology
Holding an ARRT certification in radiography, nuclear medicine, or radiation therapy (Correct answer)
Bachelor’s degree in radiologic sciences
Completion of 40 hours of CT-specific continuing education

Correct answer: Holding an ARRT certification in radiography, nuclear medicine, or radiation therapy

The ARRT Computed Tomography (CT) certification is a post-primary certification, meaning candidates must first hold a primary ARRT certification. Specifically, one must be certified in radiography (R), nuclear medicine technology (N), or radiation therapy (T) to be eligible to pursue the CT certification. This ensures a foundational understanding of radiologic principles before specializing.

Question 162: What is the maximum number of times a candidate may attempt the ARRT CT examination?

No limit on attempts, but a new application is required after 3 failures
3 times total
6 times total (Correct answer)
Unlimited attempts within the eligibility window

Correct answer: 6 times total

ARRT allows a maximum of 6 examination attempts for any given credential.

Question 163: What are standard precautions in healthcare?

Treating all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious (Correct answer)
Hand washing after patient contact only
Only wearing gloves for known infections
Using masks during surgery only

Correct answer: Treating all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious

Standard precautions assume all blood and body fluids are potentially infectious, requiring consistent use of barriers (gloves, gowns, masks) and hand hygiene for all patient interactions.

Question 164: A starburst pattern of streaks emanating from the edge of the patient's shoulders during a neck CT is most likely caused by:

Detector malfunction
Incorrect windowing
Beam hardening from bone and soft tissue interfaces (Correct answer)
Gantry tilt error

Correct answer: Beam hardening from bone and soft tissue interfaces

Dense cortical bone at the shoulder causes beam hardening, producing characteristic streak artifacts that radiate into adjacent soft tissues.

Question 165: Which artifact appears as bright or dark bands radiating from high-density structures like metal implants?

Beam hardening artifact
Streak artifact (Correct answer)
Ring artifact
Partial volume artifact

Correct answer: Streak artifact

Streak artifacts arise from highly attenuating objects (metal, dense bone) causing inconsistent projections that reconstruct as linear streaks.

Question 166: Under ARRT rules, how long does a candidate have to complete the examination after their application is approved?

1 year (Correct answer)
3 years
90 days
30 days

Correct answer: 1 year

Once approved, candidates generally have a 1-year eligibility window during which they must schedule and complete the examination.

Question 167: A CT technologist who allows their ARRT registration to lapse must do which of the following to reinstate it?

Complete a reinstatement application and pay the reinstatement fee (Correct answer)
Apply through JRCERT for re-entry
Retake the primary certification exam
Repeat clinical training

Correct answer: Complete a reinstatement application and pay the reinstatement fee

Lapsed registrants must submit a reinstatement application with the appropriate fee and may need to fulfill CE requirements.

Question 168: A CT technologist holds both Radiography (R) and CT credentials. How many CE credits are required biennially?

48 total (24 per credential)
24 total, shared across all credentials (Correct answer)
24 R-specific + 12 CT-specific = 36
12 per credential for a total of 24

Correct answer: 24 total, shared across all credentials

ARRT allows CE credits to be shared across all held credentials, so 24 credits per 2-year cycle satisfies requirements for multiple credentials.

Question 169: How does ARRT define 'structured education' for CT post-primary eligibility?

Attendance at a single CT conference or symposium
Any on-the-job training logged by the supervisor
Self-study using any radiology textbook
Formal coursework covering specific CT content areas as defined by ARRT (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Formal coursework covering specific CT content areas as defined by ARRT

ARRT requires formal coursework in specific CT content areas as part of its structured education requirement for post-primary eligibility.

Question 170: CT colonoscopy (virtual colonoscopy) relies on which post-processing technique to create a simulated fly-through view of the colon lumen?

Volume rendering with endoluminal navigation (Correct answer)
Minimum intensity projection
Maximum intensity projection
Subtraction imaging

Correct answer: Volume rendering with endoluminal navigation

Volume rendering with endoluminal navigation uses the air-distended colon as a flight path, generating a simulated colonoscopic perspective of the mucosal surface.

Question 171: An applicant for ARRT CT certification discloses a prior misdemeanor conviction on their application. What happens next?

The conviction is ignored if more than 5 years old
The applicant must wait 10 years before reapplying
ARRT's Ethics Review Committee evaluates the disclosure on a case-by-case basis (Correct answer)
The application is automatically denied

Correct answer: ARRT's Ethics Review Committee evaluates the disclosure on a case-by-case basis

ARRT's Ethics Review Committee reviews all disclosed violations individually to determine eligibility.

Question 172: What is the window level and window width on CT images?

Physical measurements of the CT scanner
Patient positioning parameters
Settings that control the brightness and contrast of displayed images (Correct answer)
Scan speed controls

Correct answer: Settings that control the brightness and contrast of displayed images

Window level sets the center brightness (what HU appears as middle gray) and window width controls contrast range (how many HUs span from black to white).

Question 173: During a multi-phase CT liver protocol (non-contrast, arterial, portal venous, delayed), which action BEST reduces cumulative patient dose?

Eliminate phases not essential for the clinical indication and use dose modulation for each phase (Correct answer)
Increase slice thickness per phase to reduce total acquisitions
Increase kVp for each phase to reduce noise
Use the maximum mAs for all phases to guarantee image quality

Correct answer: Eliminate phases not essential for the clinical indication and use dose modulation for each phase

Eliminating unnecessary scan phases and applying tube current modulation to each remaining phase are the most effective strategies to reduce cumulative multi-phase CT dose.

Question 174: Partial volume averaging artifacts in CT are best reduced by which acquisition parameter adjustment?

Widening the display window
Increasing mAs
Using a thinner slice thickness (Correct answer)
Increasing kVp

Correct answer: Using a thinner slice thickness

Thinner slices reduce partial volume averaging by ensuring each voxel contains tissue from a smaller volume, improving accuracy of CT numbers.

Question 175: How does ARRT CT certification impact patient care?

It has no significant impact on patient care
It guarantees faster patient turnaround times in CT imaging
It improves patient care by ensuring that technologists are properly trained in CT safety and imaging protocols (Correct answer)
It reduces the cost of CT procedures for patients

Correct answer: It improves patient care by ensuring that technologists are properly trained in CT safety and imaging protocols

ARRT CT certification directly impacts patient care by guaranteeing that technologists have met rigorous standards for education, clinical competency, and ethical conduct. This ensures they are proficient in CT safety, proper imaging protocols, and patient interaction, leading to accurate diagnoses and safer procedures for patients.

Question 176: A ring or band artifact centered on the image is most likely caused by a malfunction of which CT component?

X-ray tube
Collimator
A single detector element (Correct answer)
Gantry motor

Correct answer: A single detector element

Ring artifacts result from a miscalibrated or malfunctioning detector element producing a circular artifact at a fixed radius from the isocenter.

Question 177: A patient with a cardiac pacemaker presents for chest CT. Which artifact should the technologist anticipate?

Windmill artifact
Ring artifact
Cupping artifact
Metallic streak artifact from the pacemaker leads and generator (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Metallic streak artifact from the pacemaker leads and generator

Pacemaker generators and leads are highly attenuating metallic objects that produce characteristic beam hardening streak artifacts on chest CT.

Question 178: How many continuing education (CE) credits are required for recertification in ARRT CT?

12 CE credits
40 CE credits
20 CE credits
24 CE credits (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 24 CE credits

To maintain ARRT CT certification, technologists must complete a specific number of continuing education (CE) credits within each two-year renewal period. The requirement is 24 CE credits, which helps ensure that certified professionals stay updated with advancements and best practices in the field of computed tomography.

Question 179: Which reconstruction field of view (FOV) is most appropriate when performing targeted high-resolution CT of the temporal bone?

10–15 cm (small targeted FOV) (Correct answer)
40 cm (large FOV)
50 cm (full body FOV)
25 cm (medium FOV)

Correct answer: 10–15 cm (small targeted FOV)

A 10–15 cm reconstruction FOV over the temporal bone maximizes pixel density within the small region of interest, yielding the highest possible spatial resolution.

Question 180: What is the purpose of an After Action Review (AAR)?

To analyze what happened, why, and how to improve (Correct answer)
To plan the next mission only
To assign blame
To write performance reviews

Correct answer: To analyze what happened, why, and how to improve

AARs are structured reviews analyzing what was planned, what happened, why there were differences, and what can be improved.

Question 181: What does CT stand for in medical imaging?

Computed Tomography (Correct answer)
Central Treatment
Cardiac Testing
Clinical Therapy

Correct answer: Computed Tomography

CT (Computed Tomography) uses X-ray technology and computer processing to create detailed cross-sectional images of the body.

ARRT Computed Tomography (CT) Certification Examination

The ARRT CT certification exam assesses entry-level knowledge and cognitive skills required for computed tomography practice, covering patient care, radiation safety, image production, and CT imaging procedures across all major anatomical regions.

195

Questions

195 min

Time Limit

75%

To Pass

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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

assets-us-01.kc-usercontent.com — Exam format, retake fee, test dates, time limit, exam information · verified Nov 2026
arrt.org — Score validity, retake policy, eligibility, test delivery, passing score, score release, fees · verified Oct 2026