AOCNP Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield AOCNP facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which biomarker combination is currently FDA-approved for multi-cancer early detection (MCED) screening in average-risk adults? → Cell-free DNA methylation pattern analysis (e.g., Galleri test)
2. During a community health fair, an NP screens attendees for oral cancer. Which finding warrants immediate referral rather than watchful waiting? → Erythroplakia on the floor of the mouth persisting >2 weeks
3. Which obesity-related mechanism most directly increases the risk of postmenopausal breast cancer? → Conversion of androgens to estrogens in adipose tissue via aromatase
4. The USPSTF recommends against which cancer screening test due to insufficient evidence of benefit in average-risk asymptomatic adults? → Annual CA-125 for ovarian cancer screening in average-risk women
5. A male patient completes prostate radiation therapy and reports erectile dysfunction 18 months later. The MOST likely etiology of this late effect is: → Radiation-induced fibrosis of the neurovascular bundles and penile vasculature
6. A patient with multiple myeloma receiving bortezomib develops new-onset tingling and burning pain in bilateral feet. The MOST appropriate next step is to: → Switch to carfilzomib and initiate gabapentin
7. When explaining a clinical trial's Phase I design to a patient considering enrollment, the oncology NP should communicate that the primary goal is to: → Determine the maximum tolerated dose and characterize the safety profile
8. The HPV vaccine is recommended for which age group as primary prevention against cervical cancer? → Ages 9-26, with shared decision-making for ages 27-45
9. Which component is REQUIRED in a comprehensive survivorship care plan according to ASCO guidelines? → Summary of treatments received and schedule for recommended follow-up
10. A 55-year-old woman with a family history of Lynch syndrome undergoes genetic counseling. Which cancers are primarily associated with Lynch syndrome? → Colorectal and endometrial cancer
11. Which biomarker is most predictive of response to olaparib in ovarian cancer? → BRCA1/2 mutation
12. Radiation pneumonitis typically presents within which timeframe after thoracic radiation? → 1–6 months after completion of radiation
13. A patient on capecitabine develops palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia (hand-foot syndrome). Which management strategy is most appropriate? → Dose reduce capecitabine and initiate pyridoxine and urea-based cream
14. Which statement best describes the mechanism of resistance to imatinib in chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)? → Point mutations in the BCR-ABL kinase domain, particularly T315I
15. Which paraneoplastic syndrome is most commonly associated with small cell lung cancer? → Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
16. A patient with polycythemia vera (PV) develops a new stroke. Which mutation drives the majority of PV cases and is used for diagnosis? → JAK2 V617F
17. Radiation-induced fatigue is best managed with which evidence-based intervention during active treatment? → Moderate aerobic exercise (walking program)
18. A 58-year-old man with prostate cancer on androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) is at highest risk for which long-term complication requiring proactive screening? → Osteoporosis and pathologic fracture
19. The International Prognostic Index (IPI) for aggressive non-Hodgkin lymphoma includes which of the following five adverse factors? → Age >60, elevated LDH, ECOG PS ≥2, Stage III–IV, >1 extranodal site
20. Which dietary recommendation is appropriate for a patient with chemotherapy-induced mucositis? → Offer soft, bland, moist foods at room temperature
21. Fertility preservation counseling is a standard of care recommendation that should be offered: → To all patients of reproductive age BEFORE initiation of potentially gonadotoxic therapy
22. Which biomarker must be tested before initiating trastuzumab (Herceptin) therapy for breast cancer? → HER2 overexpression or gene amplification
23. Which statement about neutropenic enterocolitis (typhlitis) in oncology patients is CORRECT? → CT scan showing bowel wall thickening ≥4 mm supports the diagnosis
24. Which tumor suppressor gene is most commonly mutated in hereditary breast-ovarian cancer syndrome? → BRCA1/BRCA2
25. Radiation-induced mucositis in the oral cavity is best managed with: → Frequent saline rinses, pain assessment, and nutritional support
26. Which toxicity is most specifically associated with bleomycin and requires monitoring with pulmonary function tests? → Pulmonary fibrosis and pneumonitis
27. Irinotecan causes severe delayed diarrhea through which mechanism? → Active SN-38 metabolite inhibiting topoisomerase I in intestinal epithelium
28. Which cancer type is most commonly associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) in adults? → Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL)
29. Which dosimetric parameter best predicts the risk of radiation-induced pneumonitis in a lung cancer patient receiving thoracic radiotherapy? → Mean lung dose (MLD)
30. Secondary prevention in oncology differs from primary prevention in that secondary prevention focuses on: → Detecting cancer early in asymptomatic individuals