AMT Aviation Maintenance Technician Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What is the purpose of safety wiring in aviation maintenance?

To prevent fastener loosening (Correct answer)
To identify parts
To secure hydraulic hoses
To keep wires neat

Correct answer: To prevent fastener loosening

Safety wiring is a mechanical locking device used to secure fasteners, such as nuts, bolts, and turnbuckles, in critical aircraft applications. It ensures that these components remain tight and do not vibrate loose during operation, thereby preventing potential system failures and maintaining structural integrity. This simple yet effective method is a cornerstone of aviation safety.

Question 2: What condition is indicated when a turbine engine's exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is higher than normal at a given power setting?

Fuel flow is lower than normal for that power setting
Excess air is entering the combustion chamber
Possible turbine damage, compressor fouling, or deterioration reducing engine efficiency (Correct answer)
The engine is operating more efficiently than normal

Correct answer: Possible turbine damage, compressor fouling, or deterioration reducing engine efficiency

High EGT at a given power setting suggests reduced engine efficiency from causes such as compressor fouling, turbine damage, or bleed air leaks, requiring investigation.

Question 3: A circuit breaker that 'trips' repeatedly under normal load conditions most likely indicates:

The generator is producing excessive current
A short circuit or overload in the downstream circuit (Correct answer)
The breaker is the wrong amperage rating
The bus bar voltage is too high

Correct answer: A short circuit or overload in the downstream circuit

Repeated tripping under normal load points to a fault — typically a short circuit or a component drawing more current than the circuit is designed to handle.

Question 4: A high-tension ignition harness that shows carbon tracking would most likely cause:

Higher than normal magneto output voltage
Reduced breaker point gap requiring adjustment
Intermittent misfiring or cross-firing between cylinders (Correct answer)
A hot magneto that cannot be grounded

Correct answer: Intermittent misfiring or cross-firing between cylinders

Carbon tracks provide a low-resistance path for high-voltage current to leak to ground or to adjacent leads, causing misfires or firing the wrong cylinder.

Question 5: The function of the engine's oil temperature regulator (thermostatic bypass valve) is to:

Reduce oil flow to the engine during high-temperature operations
Prevent oil pressure from exceeding design limits
Control oil pressure by varying the pump output
Bypass the oil cooler when oil temperature is below the desired range (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bypass the oil cooler when oil temperature is below the desired range

The thermostatic bypass valve allows cold oil to bypass the oil cooler so the engine reaches operating temperature faster, then routes oil through the cooler once the desired temperature is reached.

Question 6: A mechanic discovers a dent in an aluminum wing skin that does NOT crack the surface and is not near a rivet or seam. According to typical aircraft repair guidance, this damage may be considered:

Acceptable only if painted over immediately
Requiring a patch regardless of dent depth
Always requiring immediate replacement of the skin panel
Negligible if within allowable limits defined in the aircraft SRM (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Negligible if within allowable limits defined in the aircraft SRM

Small smooth dents away from structural features may fall within negligible damage limits defined in the aircraft's Structural Repair Manual (SRM).

Question 7: According to 14 CFR 65.92, what must an IA holder do to renew their Inspection Authorization each year?

Show evidence of activity and meet one of several qualification options (Correct answer)
Attend an FAA-approved refresher course
Accumulate 500 hours of maintenance work
Pass a written test at the local FSDO

Correct answer: Show evidence of activity and meet one of several qualification options

An IA is renewed annually and requires the holder to show evidence of activity (inspections performed) and meet at least one of the qualification requirements listed in 14 CFR 65.93.

Question 8: What unit is commonly used to measure electrical resistance in aircraft circuits?

Volts
Ohms (Correct answer)
Watts
Amperes

Correct answer: Ohms

Ohms are the standard unit of measurement for electrical resistance, quantifying how much a material opposes the flow of electric current. Understanding resistance is fundamental in aircraft circuits to ensure proper component operation, calculate current flow (using Ohm's Law), and prevent overheating or circuit failure. Volts measure potential difference, Watts measure power, and Amperes measure current.

Question 9: Exfoliation corrosion is characterized by:

Laminar separation of metal layers parallel to the surface (Correct answer)
Cracking perpendicular to the grain direction
Pitting concentrated at fastener holes
White filaments running under paint

Correct answer: Laminar separation of metal layers parallel to the surface

Exfoliation corrosion causes the metal to delaminate in layers parallel to the rolled surface, producing a flaking or leafing appearance typical in high-strength aluminum alloys.

Question 10: Which aircraft skin fastening method creates the strongest and most permanent structural joint?

Hi-Lok fasteners
Bonding with structural adhesive
Sheet metal screws
Rivets (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Rivets

Solid shank rivets, when properly installed, create a permanent high-strength structural joint widely used in aircraft construction.

Question 11: What is the purpose of the intercooler in a turbocharged reciprocating engine?

To cool exhaust gases before they enter the turbocharger
To reduce the temperature of compressed induction air (Correct answer)
To cool the oil before it enters the engine
To regulate the temperature of the magneto

Correct answer: To reduce the temperature of compressed induction air

An intercooler reduces the temperature of induction air after compression by the turbocharger, increasing air density for better fuel-air mixture.

Question 12: The "neutral axis" of a structural beam under bending is the location where:

Maximum shear stress occurs
Maximum tensile stress occurs
Maximum compressive stress occurs
Neither tensile nor compressive stress exists (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Neither tensile nor compressive stress exists

The neutral axis is the plane within a beam where bending stress is zero, with tension on one side and compression on the other.

Question 13: An aircraft reciprocating engine exhibits low oil pressure at idle but normal pressure at cruise RPM. The MOST likely cause is:

A stuck-closed oil pressure relief valve
Worn engine bearings causing excessive oil clearance (Correct answer)
A clogged oil filter bypassing unfiltered oil
Low oil temperature causing excessive viscosity

Correct answer: Worn engine bearings causing excessive oil clearance

Worn main or rod bearings increase oil clearance, allowing oil to leak past at low pump output (idle), while higher pump output at cruise maintains adequate pressure.

Question 14: During takeoff in an aircraft with a constant-speed propeller, the propeller blade pitch is set to:

A high pitch, low RPM position to take a large bite of air.
A low pitch, high RPM position to allow the engine to develop maximum power. (Correct answer)
The feathered position to reduce initial engine load.
An intermediate pitch that is averaged between climb and cruise settings.

Correct answer: A low pitch, high RPM position to allow the engine to develop maximum power.

For takeoff, the propeller is set to a low pitch (high RPM) position. This light load allows the engine to accelerate to its maximum rated RPM and produce maximum power for takeoff and initial climb.

Question 15: Under what circumstances may an aircraft be operated beyond the time limit of an Airworthiness Directive?

When a certificated A&P mechanic documents a risk assessment in the logbook
When the FAA issues a specific exemption or alternative means of compliance (AMOC) (Correct answer)
When the aircraft owner determines the risk is acceptable and files a waiver
ADs may never be exceeded under any circumstances

Correct answer: When the FAA issues a specific exemption or alternative means of compliance (AMOC)

An aircraft may exceed an AD's compliance time only when the FAA approves an Alternative Method of Compliance (AMOC) or grants a specific exemption under 14 CFR 39.19.

Question 16: An aircraft's logbook shows the last annual inspection was signed off 14 months ago. Under 14 CFR Part 91, this aircraft's airworthiness status for VFR day flight is:

Airworthy, because annual inspections are only required for IFR operations
Airworthy if the owner signs a statement of continued airworthiness
Airworthy for another two months under a grace period provision
Not airworthy for operation under Part 91 without a new annual inspection or special flight permit (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Not airworthy for operation under Part 91 without a new annual inspection or special flight permit

14 CFR 91.409(a) requires an annual inspection every 12 calendar months; after 14 months the inspection is overdue and the aircraft is not airworthy for any flight without a new inspection or an FAA special flight permit.

Question 17: A reciprocating engine is running rough and backfiring through the induction system. The most likely cause is:

Over-rich mixture at cruise power
Excessively lean mixture causing early ignition (Correct answer)
Exhaust valve sticking open
High oil pressure restricting fuel flow

Correct answer: Excessively lean mixture causing early ignition

An excessively lean mixture can cause slow or late combustion that continues into the induction cycle, causing backfiring through the intake.

Question 18: What is the purpose of an 'overhaul' as defined in 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix D?

Restoring an item to a serviceable condition by cleaning, inspecting, and replacing worn parts
Updating an item to the latest approved configuration
Restoring an item to a like-new condition using FAA-approved data and within new-part tolerances (Correct answer)
Inspecting an item against manufacturer limits without part replacement

Correct answer: Restoring an item to a like-new condition using FAA-approved data and within new-part tolerances

An overhaul restores a component to new-part tolerances using FAA-approved data, verifying all dimensions are within limits specified for new parts.

Question 19: What is the purpose of a flow control valve in an aircraft pneumatic de-ice boot system?

To maintain constant inflation pressure in all boots simultaneously
To heat the air before it enters the boot
To filter moisture from the pneumatic supply air
To direct pressurized air to inflate boots in a specific sequence (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To direct pressurized air to inflate boots in a specific sequence

Flow control (distributor) valves sequence the inflation of individual de-ice boots to cycle the ice-breaking action along the leading edge.

Question 20: What is the function of the retard breaker points found in some aircraft magnetos?

Provide a retarded spark for starting to prevent kickback (Correct answer)
Limit maximum primary current to protect the coil
Allow the magneto to operate on either direction of rotation
Advance timing automatically as engine RPM increases

Correct answer: Provide a retarded spark for starting to prevent kickback

Retard breaker points fire the spark slightly after TDC during engine cranking, preventing the engine from kicking back against the starter or hand-propping motion.

Question 21: When safety-wiring a group of bolts using the single-wire method, which direction should the wire be routed so the bolt cannot rotate in the loosening direction?

Directly to the nearest structural attachment point
Counterclockwise around each bolt head
Any direction as long as all bolt heads are looped
From the first bolt to the second so tension pulls each bolt in the tightening direction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: From the first bolt to the second so tension pulls each bolt in the tightening direction

Safety wire must be routed so that any tendency for a fastener to loosen will instead put the wire in tension, pulling the fastener toward the tightening direction.

Question 22: What is the purpose of a bleed air system on a turbine-powered aircraft?

To supply hot compressed air from the engine for cabin pressurization and anti-ice (Correct answer)
To pre-cool engine oil before it enters the oil cooler
To vent excess hydraulic pressure overboard
To provide boundary layer control over wing surfaces

Correct answer: To supply hot compressed air from the engine for cabin pressurization and anti-ice

Bleed air is extracted from engine compressor stages and used for cabin pressurization, air conditioning, anti-icing, and pneumatic systems.

Question 23: During a pre-inspection of a pneumatic system, a technician notices the air bottles show pressure well below the minimum charge. The FIRST maintenance step is to:

Inspect the system for leaks before recharging (Correct answer)
Bleed the system completely before recharging
Replace the air bottles as they are likely faulty
Charge the bottles and return the aircraft to service

Correct answer: Inspect the system for leaks before recharging

Low bottle pressure indicates a possible leak; the system must be inspected to find and correct the leak source before recharging, otherwise the charge will simply escape again.

Question 24: 14 CFR 65.83 requires an A&P certificate holder who has not exercised the privileges of their certificate for more than 24 months to:

Satisfactorily complete a refresher course or pass a practical test before resuming certificate privileges (Correct answer)
Surrender the certificate and apply for a new one
Retake the FAA written knowledge test
Obtain a letter of authorization from an FAA FSDO

Correct answer: Satisfactorily complete a refresher course or pass a practical test before resuming certificate privileges

14 CFR 65.83 requires a certificate holder who has not exercised privileges for 24 consecutive months to complete an FAA-approved refresher course or pass a practical test to resume those privileges.

Question 25: A technician is troubleshooting a float-type carburetor that provides an excessively rich mixture as the aircraft climbs in altitude, even with no pilot input. Which component is most likely malfunctioning?

The main metering jet.
The automatic mixture control (AMC). (Correct answer)
The throttle valve.
The accelerator pump.

Correct answer: The automatic mixture control (AMC).

The automatic mixture control (AMC) is designed to compensate for changes in air density due to altitude. It uses a sealed bellows that expands as atmospheric pressure decreases, leaning the mixture accordingly. If the AMC fails, the carburetor will continue to meter fuel as if it were at a lower altitude, resulting in an increasingly rich mixture as the aircraft climbs into less dense air.

Question 26: During an engine inspection, what should be checked to assess cylinder condition?

Oil temperature
Cylinder compression (Correct answer)
Ignition timing
Fuel pressure

Correct answer: Cylinder compression

Cylinder compression testing directly measures the sealing integrity of the cylinder, piston rings, and valves. Low compression indicates wear or damage that can significantly impact engine power and efficiency. Therefore, it is a critical assessment during an engine inspection to determine the overall health of the engine's combustion chambers.

Question 27: A magneto's 'E-gap' refers to the position of the rotating magnet when:

The magneto reaches its maximum RPM
Magnetic flux through the coil core is changing most rapidly (Correct answer)
The distributor finger aligns with the next electrode
The breaker points are fully closed

Correct answer: Magnetic flux through the coil core is changing most rapidly

E-gap (efficiency gap) is the rotor position at which flux change in the core is at maximum, generating the highest possible primary voltage before points open.

Question 28: Which standard governs the identification and certification of aircraft materials and parts to ensure traceability in FAA-regulated maintenance?

14 CFR Part 43
14 CFR Part 21 (Correct answer)
AC 43.9
14 CFR Part 45

Correct answer: 14 CFR Part 21

14 CFR Part 21 governs the certification of products and articles, including requirements for approved parts and the systems that trace their origin and airworthiness approval.

Question 29: What is the purpose of a bonding jumper on an aircraft fuel system component?

To mechanically secure fuel lines against vibration
To provide an electrical ground path that prevents static charge buildup (Correct answer)
To equalize fuel pressure between tanks
To prevent fuel from freezing in cold temperatures

Correct answer: To provide an electrical ground path that prevents static charge buildup

Bonding jumpers provide a continuous electrical path to dissipate static electricity, preventing sparks that could ignite fuel vapors.

Question 30: Which type of aircraft battery is known for being lightweight and having a high energy density, but is also susceptible to thermal runaway if not properly managed by a sophisticated charging and monitoring system?

Lithium-ion (Li-ion). (Correct answer)
Nickel-cadmium (Ni-Cd).
Sealed lead-acid (VRLA).
Vented lead-acid.

Correct answer: Lithium-ion (Li-ion).

Lithium-ion batteries offer significant advantages in weight and energy density compared to older technologies like lead-acid and Ni-Cd. [22] However, they are chemically volatile and require complex battery management systems to prevent overcharging, overheating, and thermal runaway, a condition that can lead to fire. [22]

Question 31: A wing rib that does NOT extend the full depth of the wing and is used to maintain airfoil shape between main ribs is called a:

Compression rib
Drag rib
Main rib
False rib (Correct answer)

Correct answer: False rib

A false rib (or nose rib/auxiliary rib) spans only the leading edge area and helps maintain airfoil contour between full-depth ribs.

Question 32: An aircraft structural design philosophy that relies on redundancy, where the failure of a single structural element will not cause catastrophic failure of the entire structure, is known as:

Single-path structure
Fail-safe (Correct answer)
Safe-life
Damage tolerant

Correct answer: Fail-safe

The fail-safe design philosophy assumes that structural failures may occur but are contained. It uses redundant structures (multiple load paths) so that if one component fails, other adjacent components can carry the redistributed loads until the damage is discovered and repaired. [17, 19, 20] This is in contrast to the safe-life philosophy, which aims to retire a part before any cracks are expected to initiate. [17]

Question 33: What document must an AMT complete and sign to return an aircraft to service after a 100-hour inspection?

FAA Form 8110-3
Aircraft maintenance record entry signed under 14 CFR 43.11 (Correct answer)
Maintenance Release (FAA Form 337)
AC Form 8050-1

Correct answer: Aircraft maintenance record entry signed under 14 CFR 43.11

14 CFR 43.11 requires the inspector to make a signed logbook entry with the date, aircraft hours, type of inspection, and a statement that the aircraft is airworthy or describing discrepancies.

Question 34: When using a micrometer to measure a shaft, the thimble reads 0.275 in and the vernier scale shows 3. What is the actual measurement if the vernier unit is 0.0001 in?

0.2750 in
0.2783 in
0.2730 in
0.2753 in (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 0.2753 in

The vernier digit (3) adds 3 × 0.0001 in = 0.0003 in to the thimble reading: 0.2750 + 0.0003 = 0.2753 in.

Question 35: The compressor pressure ratio of a turbine engine is defined as:

Compressor outlet total pressure divided by compressor inlet total pressure (Correct answer)
Fuel flow rate divided by airflow rate
Turbine inlet pressure divided by exhaust pressure
Mass airflow at the inlet divided by mass airflow at the outlet

Correct answer: Compressor outlet total pressure divided by compressor inlet total pressure

Compressor pressure ratio is the ratio of total air pressure at the compressor outlet to total air pressure at the compressor inlet, indicating compression efficiency.

Question 36: An aircraft's empennage provides what primary function?

Houses the fuel tanks
Provides stability and control in pitch and yaw (Correct answer)
Generates primary lift
Supports the main landing gear

Correct answer: Provides stability and control in pitch and yaw

The empennage (tail assembly) provides longitudinal (pitch) and directional (yaw) stability and control through the horizontal and vertical stabilizers.

Question 37: When repairing aircraft skin using a flush patch, the rivet pattern must maintain what minimum edge distance from the rivet centerline to the edge of the patch?

1.5 times the rivet diameter
4 times the rivet diameter
2 times the rivet diameter (Correct answer)
3 times the rivet diameter

Correct answer: 2 times the rivet diameter

The minimum edge distance for aircraft rivets is 2D (two times the rivet diameter) measured from the rivet centerline to the nearest edge.

Question 38: What is the function of a bonding jumper installed between aircraft components?

To carry main bus current between components
To ground navigation antennas
To provide a path for lightning to exit the airframe
To equalize electrical potential between components and prevent static charge buildup or spark hazards (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To equalize electrical potential between components and prevent static charge buildup or spark hazards

Bonding jumpers create low-resistance electrical paths between components to equalize potential, preventing static discharge sparks and reducing RF interference.

Question 39: What is the function of the pressurization and dump valve in a gas turbine fuel system?

Prevents secondary fuel nozzles from opening until primary fuel pressure is sufficient, and dumps manifold fuel on shutdown (Correct answer)
Provides a bypass path around the fuel heater during cold starts
Regulates high-pressure fuel to the fuel control unit during starting
Measures fuel flow to provide data to the engine fuel control

Correct answer: Prevents secondary fuel nozzles from opening until primary fuel pressure is sufficient, and dumps manifold fuel on shutdown

The pressurizing and dump valve holds back fuel from secondary nozzles until pressure is adequate for proper atomization, then drains the fuel manifold when the engine shuts down to prevent coking.

Question 40: According to FAA AC 43.13-1B, what is the minimum edge distance for a rivet hole measured from the center of the hole to the edge of the sheet?

3 times the rivet diameter
1.5 times the rivet diameter
2 times the rivet diameter (Correct answer)
2.5 times the rivet diameter

Correct answer: 2 times the rivet diameter

AC 43.13-1B specifies a minimum edge distance of 2D (twice the rivet diameter) from the rivet centerline to the nearest sheet edge.

Question 41: What is the minimum bend radius requirement primarily intended to prevent in sheet metal work?

Warping of adjacent panels
Work hardening on the inside radius
Buckling of the sheet
Cracking on the outside of the bend (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cracking on the outside of the bend

Minimum bend radius prevents tensile cracking on the outer surface of the bend where metal is stretched most severely.

Question 42: Which FAA publication series is specifically used to advise aircraft owners and operators of unsafe conditions and required corrective actions?

Airworthiness Directives (ADs) (Correct answer)
Special Airworthiness Information Bulletins (SAIBs)
Type Certificate Data Sheets (TCDS)
Advisory Circulars (ACs)

Correct answer: Airworthiness Directives (ADs)

Airworthiness Directives are legally binding regulations issued under 14 CFR Part 39 requiring corrective action for unsafe conditions.

Question 43: An aircraft reciprocating engine has excessive oil consumption with blue smoke in the exhaust. The most likely cause is:

Blocked oil cooler causing oil to be expelled through the breather
Leaking fuel injector nozzles allowing fuel to dilute the oil
High oil pressure exceeding the bypass valve setting
Worn valve guides or piston rings allowing oil to enter the combustion chamber (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Worn valve guides or piston rings allowing oil to enter the combustion chamber

Blue exhaust smoke is characteristic of oil burning in the combustion chamber, most commonly caused by worn valve guides or piston rings allowing oil past the seals.

Question 44: A propeller tachometer reads 300 RPM lower than the engine tachometer on a direct-drive engine. The technician should:

Calibrate the propeller tachometer
Suspect a slipping propeller hub or flange (Correct answer)
Reduce manifold pressure to bring readings into agreement
Accept the difference as normal for high-altitude flight

Correct answer: Suspect a slipping propeller hub or flange

On a direct-drive engine, the propeller must turn at the same RPM as the crankshaft; a large discrepancy suggests propeller slippage on the shaft.

Question 45: A reciprocating engine exhibits low oil pressure accompanied by high oil temperature. What is the most likely cause?

Worn bearings providing excessive clearance, allowing oil to bypass and reducing pressure while increasing friction heat (Correct answer)
Blocked oil cooler bypass valve stuck in the open position
Overfilled oil sump causing oil to be carried through the breather
Low oil temperature thermostat set too low causing sluggish oil flow

Correct answer: Worn bearings providing excessive clearance, allowing oil to bypass and reducing pressure while increasing friction heat

Worn engine bearings increase oil clearances, reducing resistance and pressure while generating additional friction heat, causing the combined low pressure/high temperature symptom.

Question 46: While reviewing an aircraft wiring diagram, a technician notes a component symbol consisting of a coil and a set of contacts. When the coil is energized, it mechanically closes the contacts in a separate circuit. What does this symbol represent?

A capacitor.
A relay. (Correct answer)
A resistor.
A diode.

Correct answer: A relay.

This describes the function and schematic representation of a relay. A relay is an electromechanical switch that uses a small current in a control circuit (the coil) to control a larger current in a separate power circuit (the contacts). [9] This allows for remote switching and the control of high-power circuits with a low-power signal.

Question 47: A technician is treating an area of surface corrosion on an aluminum alloy fuselage. After mechanically removing the corrosion products, what is the primary purpose of applying a chemical conversion coating like Alodine before priming?

To restore the material lost to corrosion.
To increase the surface hardness and wear resistance.
To provide a sacrificial layer that is more anodic than the aluminum.
To form a passive oxide film that inhibits further corrosion and promotes paint adhesion. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To form a passive oxide film that inhibits further corrosion and promotes paint adhesion.

Chemical conversion coatings, such as Alodine, are used to create a passive, corrosion-resistant film on the aluminum surface. This film inhibits new corrosion from forming and also serves as an excellent adhesive base for the subsequent primer coat.

Question 48: Which of the following best describes 'compressor stall' in a gas turbine engine?

The compressor inlet guide vanes close completely
Airflow through a compressor stage separates from the blade surfaces, causing flow disruption (Correct answer)
The compressor rotor exceeds its design RPM limit
Fuel flow exceeds the compressor's capacity to atomize it

Correct answer: Airflow through a compressor stage separates from the blade surfaces, causing flow disruption

Compressor stall occurs when the angle of attack on compressor blades becomes excessive, causing boundary layer separation and disrupted airflow.

Question 49: An aircraft's approved CG range at gross weight is 78 to 86 inches. The computed CG is 87.5 inches. What action is required before flight?

Add ballast at the nose to shift CG aft
The flight may proceed if fuel burn will bring the CG forward
Contact the manufacturer for a one-time waiver
Redistribute or remove weight to bring the CG within limits (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Redistribute or remove weight to bring the CG within limits

The CG must be within approved limits before flight; the technician must redistribute load or remove aft weight to bring the CG to 86 inches or less.

Question 50: What is the correct procedure when a mechanic discovers that a part installed on an aircraft is suspected to be an unapproved part?

Consult the original equipment manufacturer only, with no FAA notification required
Remove the part, replace it, and discard the suspicious part without further action
Remove the part, retain it, and report the finding to the FAA and document it in the aircraft records (Correct answer)
Overwite it with an approved part number stamp and continue service

Correct answer: Remove the part, retain it, and report the finding to the FAA and document it in the aircraft records

Suspected unapproved parts (SUPs) must be removed, quarantined, and reported to the FAA per FAA Order 8120.10, with documentation in the aircraft records.

Question 51: What type of landing gear arrangement is most commonly used on modern large transport aircraft?

Bicycle gear with outriggers
Conventional (tailwheel) gear
Retractable tricycle gear (Correct answer)
Fixed tricycle gear

Correct answer: Retractable tricycle gear

Retractable tricycle gear is standard on modern transport aircraft because it reduces aerodynamic drag in flight and provides stable ground handling with good pilot forward visibility.

Question 52: Which ignition system component stores energy and releases it as a high-intensity spark during engine starting in a gas turbine?

Magneto
Capacitor-discharge exciter box (Correct answer)
Spark plug resistor
Distributor rotor

Correct answer: Capacitor-discharge exciter box

The capacitor-discharge exciter box stores electrical energy and releases it as a high-voltage, high-energy spark to the igniters during turbine engine starting.

Question 53: A maintenance technician inspects a magnetic chip detector removed from a gas turbine engine's oil system and finds several small, metallic particles. This discovery is a primary indicator of what condition?

Wear or failure of internal ferrous components like gears or bearings. (Correct answer)
Oil contamination from an external source.
Normal operation and requires no action.
Coking and carbon buildup in the lubrication system.

Correct answer: Wear or failure of internal ferrous components like gears or bearings.

Magnetic chip detectors are placed in the oil system specifically to attract and capture ferrous (iron-based) metal particles. The presence of these particles indicates that components such as bearings, gears, or shafts are wearing down or failing, releasing metal into the lubrication system.

Question 54: Which aircraft document lists required inspections and maintenance intervals?

Airworthiness certificate
Maintenance manual (Correct answer)
Registration certificate
Logbook

Correct answer: Maintenance manual

The aircraft's maintenance manual is the authoritative document provided by the manufacturer that details all required inspections, maintenance procedures, and their specific intervals. It contains comprehensive instructions for servicing, troubleshooting, and repairing the aircraft. Adhering to these guidelines is essential for maintaining the aircraft's airworthiness and operational safety.

Question 55: What is the primary reason for using a dual ignition system on a certified aircraft reciprocating engine?

To provide redundancy for safety and improve combustion efficiency for better performance. (Correct answer)
To reduce engine operating temperatures and decrease fuel consumption.
To eliminate the need for an impulse coupling during engine start.
To decrease the electrical load on the aircraft's main battery and alternator.

Correct answer: To provide redundancy for safety and improve combustion efficiency for better performance.

A dual ignition system uses two separate magnetos, harnesses, and spark plugs for each cylinder. This provides redundancy, meaning if one entire system fails, the engine can still operate on the other. Additionally, having two spark plugs ignites the fuel-air mixture from two points, leading to a faster, more complete combustion process, which improves engine performance and power output.

Question 56: Which type of damage to a fiberglass composite panel requires the use of a wet layup repair technique?

Small surface cracks in the paint finish only
Slight surface abrasion of the outer ply
Deep delamination or penetration damage through multiple plies (Correct answer)
Minor surface scratches that expose the gel coat

Correct answer: Deep delamination or penetration damage through multiple plies

Deep delamination or through-penetration damage requires wet layup repair to restore the original strength of the composite laminate.

Question 57: When drilling out a rivet for removal, the drill bit should be the same diameter as:

The rivet hole
The rivet head
The rivet shank (Correct answer)
The rivet manufactured head

Correct answer: The rivet shank

When removing a rivet, the drill is sized to match the shank diameter to drill out the head without enlarging the hole.

Question 58: Under 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix D, which inspection item is NOT specifically required during an annual/100-hour inspection?

Engine compression check
Operational test of all avionics (Correct answer)
Fuel system inspection
Control surface inspection

Correct answer: Operational test of all avionics

Appendix D of Part 43 does not specifically require an operational test of all avionics; it focuses on airframe, engine, propeller, and flight control system inspections.

Question 59: What is 'propeller torque effect' and how does it affect aircraft handling?

The tendency of the aircraft to pitch up due to gyroscopic precession of the propeller
The vibration caused by an out-of-balance propeller at high power settings
The tendency of the aircraft to roll opposite to propeller rotation due to Newton's third law reaction torque (Correct answer)
The tendency of the propeller to increase pitch at high RPM due to centrifugal force

Correct answer: The tendency of the aircraft to roll opposite to propeller rotation due to Newton's third law reaction torque

Torque effect is the reaction to engine/propeller rotation per Newton's third law; on a clockwise-rotating (from the cockpit) propeller, the aircraft tends to roll left.

Question 60: What is the purpose of an anti-icing "hot section" inside a wing leading edge?

Prevent ice formation by heating the leading edge surface (Correct answer)
Store fuel under pressure
Route electrical wiring
Increase lift at low speeds

Correct answer: Prevent ice formation by heating the leading edge surface

Leading-edge anti-icing systems use heated bleed air or electrical elements to prevent ice from forming on the wing's leading edge during flight.

Question 61: Which rivet is recommended when riveting dissimilar metals that cannot be anodized after assembly to prevent galvanic corrosion?

AN470 AD rivet (2117-T4 alloy)
AN470 A rivet (1100 alloy)
Monel rivet (Correct answer)
AN426 DD rivet (2024-T4 alloy)

Correct answer: Monel rivet

Monel rivets are used where galvanic compatibility is critical, particularly when joining stainless steel or other metals that would create severe galvanic couples with aluminum rivets.

Question 62: A technician uses dye-penetrant inspection on a non-magnetic titanium fitting. After applying developer, indications appear as bright red lines. What do these lines represent?

Normal grain boundaries in the metal
Surface-open discontinuities (cracks or seams) where penetrant has bled back out (Correct answer)
Porosity in the casting
Contamination from cleaning solvent

Correct answer: Surface-open discontinuities (cracks or seams) where penetrant has bled back out

In color-contrast dye penetrant inspection, red indications on the white developer background mark locations where penetrant trapped in surface-open defects has been drawn back out.

Question 63: A repair station performing avionics work on a transport category aircraft installs a component. Which document authorizes the installation of a specific avionics unit as acceptable FAA-approved data?

Only the aircraft manufacturer's maintenance manual
Any manufacturer's installation manual regardless of FAA approval status
A letter of authorization from the aircraft owner
An FAA-approved Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) or data approved by the Aircraft Certification Office (ACO) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An FAA-approved Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) or data approved by the Aircraft Certification Office (ACO)

Avionics installations must be supported by FAA-approved data such as an STC, FAA field approval, or data from the ACO to ensure the installation meets airworthiness standards.

Question 64: Which type of torque wrench displays the applied torque on a dial or digital readout without requiring the technician to preset a value?

Impact torque wrench
Indicating (deflecting beam) torque wrench (Correct answer)
Slip-type torque wrench
Preset click-type torque wrench

Correct answer: Indicating (deflecting beam) torque wrench

Indicating or deflecting-beam torque wrenches show live torque on a scale or display, allowing the technician to read the value directly as force is applied.

Question 65: In a semi-monocoque fuselage, what is the primary function of longitudinal members such as longerons and stringers?

To provide the cross-sectional shape of the fuselage.
To absorb and transmit bending, tensile, and compressive stresses. (Correct answer)
To act as the main attachment points for the wings and empennage.
To transfer shear stresses from the skin to the wing spars.

Correct answer: To absorb and transmit bending, tensile, and compressive stresses.

Longerons and stringers are the primary longitudinal members in a semi-monocoque fuselage. Their main role is to resist bending moments and carry axial loads (tension and compression) along the length of the fuselage. [3, 6] While formers and bulkheads provide shape, the longerons and stringers form the key load-bearing framework that prevents the fuselage from bending under flight loads. [15]

Question 66: What type of stress acts perpendicular to the cross-section of a structural member and tends to pull it apart?

Shear stress
Compressive stress
Torsional stress
Tensile stress (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Tensile stress

Tensile stress acts perpendicular to a cross-section and tends to elongate or pull apart the material.

Question 67: Which component cools engine oil before it returns to the reservoir?

Oil sump
Oil bypass valve
Oil pressure gauge
Oil cooler (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Oil cooler

The oil cooler is a vital component in an aircraft engine's lubrication system, responsible for reducing the temperature of the engine oil. After circulating through the engine and absorbing heat, the hot oil passes through the oil cooler, where it is cooled by ambient air or fuel before returning to the oil reservoir. Maintaining optimal oil temperature is crucial for engine longevity and performance.

Question 68: What does the term 'mean aerodynamic chord' (MAC) represent in aircraft weight and balance?

The chord at the wing tip
The chord at the wing root
The average chord length of a tapered or swept wing, used as a reference for CG limits expressed as a percentage (Correct answer)
The chord at the widest point of the fuselage

Correct answer: The average chord length of a tapered or swept wing, used as a reference for CG limits expressed as a percentage

MAC is the chord of an imaginary rectangular wing with the same lift and center-of-pressure characteristics as the actual wing, used to express CG location as a percentage for tapered or swept wings.

Question 69: What is the primary function of the diffuser section in a centrifugal flow gas turbine engine?

To increase the velocity and decrease the pressure of the air.
To decrease the velocity and increase the static pressure of the air. (Correct answer)
To mix the fuel and air for combustion.
To straighten the airflow before it enters the turbine section.

Correct answer: To decrease the velocity and increase the static pressure of the air.

The diffuser is a divergent duct located after the compressor. Its purpose is to slow down the high-velocity air leaving the compressor and convert its kinetic energy (velocity) into potential energy (static pressure). This high-pressure, low-velocity air is ideal for efficient combustion.

Question 70: On a continuity test using a multimeter, a technician reads zero ohms between two points in an electrical circuit. What does this indicate?

An open circuit (broken wire)
A complete and uninterrupted path (good continuity) between the two points (Correct answer)
A short circuit between the two tested points
Excessive resistance in the circuit

Correct answer: A complete and uninterrupted path (good continuity) between the two points

Zero ohms (or near-zero) on a continuity test means the electrical path between the two probes is intact with no significant resistance — indicating a good connection.

Question 71: Which material property describes resistance to scratching and surface wear?

Elasticity
Ductility
Hardness (Correct answer)
Toughness

Correct answer: Hardness

Hardness is the material property that indicates resistance to surface indentation, scratching, and wear.

Question 72: Stress corrosion cracking (SCC) in aircraft structures is caused by the combination of:

High humidity and low temperature
Cyclic loading and paint failure
Tensile stress and a corrosive environment acting simultaneously (Correct answer)
Impact damage and saltwater exposure

Correct answer: Tensile stress and a corrosive environment acting simultaneously

SCC requires the simultaneous presence of tensile stress (residual or applied) and a specific corrosive environment, causing cracks to propagate along grain boundaries.

Question 73: A semi-monocoque fuselage structure derives most of its strength from:

A combination of skin, stringers, frames, and bulkheads working together (Correct answer)
Heavy longerons running the full fuselage length
A thick external skin acting alone
The internal framework of bulkheads and stringers only

Correct answer: A combination of skin, stringers, frames, and bulkheads working together

Semi-monocoque construction shares loads between the stressed skin and the internal framework of stringers, frames, and bulkheads.

Question 74: When performing a fuel flow check on a fuel injection system using a flow meter, uneven fuel flow between cylinders may indicate:

A float stuck at the wrong level in the fuel control unit
Worn or partially clogged injector nozzles or differences in nozzle orifice size (Correct answer)
Incorrect ignition timing causing uneven combustion
A malfunctioning manifold pressure gauge

Correct answer: Worn or partially clogged injector nozzles or differences in nozzle orifice size

Uneven fuel flow between cylinders in a continuous-flow system most commonly results from partially clogged, worn, or mismatched injector nozzles.

Question 75: What action should be taken if metal particles are found in the oil filter during an engine inspection?

Continue operation and monitor at the next scheduled change
Add an oil supplement to reduce metal particle generation
Flush the system and continue operation with reduced power settings
Remove the engine from service for further investigation to identify the source of the contamination (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Remove the engine from service for further investigation to identify the source of the contamination

Metal particles in the oil filter indicate internal wear or damage requiring removal of the engine from service and thorough investigation before further flight.

Question 76: What type of weld joint is used when two pieces of metal overlap and are welded along the edge of one piece?

Tee joint
Butt joint
Corner joint
Lap joint (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Lap joint

A lap joint is formed when two pieces overlap and a fillet weld is made along the edge of the top piece where it meets the surface of the bottom piece.

Question 77: What is the correct term for the angle between the wing chord line and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft?

Dihedral angle
Sweepback angle
Angle of incidence (Correct answer)
Angle of attack

Correct answer: Angle of incidence

The angle of incidence is the fixed angle at which the wing is mounted relative to the aircraft's longitudinal axis.

Question 78: Why is proper torque application important in aircraft maintenance?

To improve paint adhesion
To reduce part cost
To make removal easier
To prevent fastener failure and ensure safety (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To prevent fastener failure and ensure safety

Proper torque application ensures that fasteners are tightened to their specified tension, creating the necessary clamping force to hold parts together securely. Incorrect torque, whether too loose or too tight, can lead to fastener failure, structural damage, and ultimately compromise the aircraft's safety and airworthiness. Adhering to torque specifications is fundamental for maintaining structural integrity.

Question 79: What is the purpose of a "weep hole" in an aircraft wing structure?

To vent fuel tank pressure
To allow moisture drainage and prevent corrosion (Correct answer)
To provide access for fuel line routing
To reduce aerodynamic drag

Correct answer: To allow moisture drainage and prevent corrosion

Weep holes allow accumulated moisture to drain from structural cavities, preventing corrosion buildup.

Question 80: In the AN hardware system, what does the letter 'D' following the dash number on a bolt designation indicate?

Extra-close tolerance
Reduced-diameter shank
Dual-heat-treated alloy steel
Drilled shank for cotter pin safety (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Drilled shank for cotter pin safety

The 'D' suffix on an AN bolt indicates the shank is drilled to accept a cotter pin or safety wire for positive locking.

Question 81: A technician is performing a 100-hour inspection and finds an Airworthiness Directive (AD) has not been complied with. What is the CORRECT action?

Placard the affected system and notify the owner in writing
Document the finding and return the aircraft to service pending compliance
File an FAA SDR and allow continued operation
Comply with the AD or obtain an FAA-approved exemption before returning the aircraft to service (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Comply with the AD or obtain an FAA-approved exemption before returning the aircraft to service

An uncomplied-with AD is an airworthiness violation; the aircraft cannot legally be returned to service until the AD is accomplished or a valid FAA exemption is obtained.

Question 82: According to FAR Part 43, what records must be made after completing a 100-hour inspection?

Only an airworthiness release signed by an A&P mechanic
A verbal notification to the aircraft owner with no written record required
Only the items found defective and corrected
A description of work performed, the date, aircraft total time, and the signature and certificate number of the person approving return to service (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A description of work performed, the date, aircraft total time, and the signature and certificate number of the person approving return to service

FAR 43.9 and 43.11 require a signed maintenance record entry including the description of work, date, aircraft total time, and approving person's credentials.

Question 83: What is the purpose of 'trimming' a turbine engine?

Aligning the engine mounts for minimal vibration transmission
Reducing turbine inlet temperature to extend component life
Adjusting the engine to produce the correct thrust at specified conditions (Correct answer)
Balancing the turbine blades to reduce vibration

Correct answer: Adjusting the engine to produce the correct thrust at specified conditions

Engine trimming is the adjustment of the fuel control unit to ensure the engine produces the correct rated thrust at specified ambient conditions.

Question 84: What is the role of the fuel control unit (FCU) on a turbine engine?

To filter fuel contaminants before they reach the fuel nozzles
To ignite the fuel-air mixture during start
To meter fuel flow based on power lever position and engine parameters (Correct answer)
To pressurize the fuel before it enters the combustion liner

Correct answer: To meter fuel flow based on power lever position and engine parameters

The FCU meters the correct quantity of fuel to the combustion chamber based on power lever position, engine speed, and inlet conditions.

Question 85: What is the primary purpose of formers and bulkheads in a fuselage structure?

To provide the cross-sectional shape and to which stringers and skin are attached. (Correct answer)
To serve as the primary structure for absorbing landing gear impact.
To provide attachment points for the engines only.
To carry the primary bending loads along the length of the fuselage.

Correct answer: To provide the cross-sectional shape and to which stringers and skin are attached.

Formers and bulkheads are transverse (circumferential) structural members that define the shape of the fuselage. [1] They provide the framework to which the longitudinal stringers and the outer skin are fastened. [14, 15] While certain heavy-duty bulkheads may serve as attachment points for wings or act as firewalls, their fundamental role across the entire fuselage is to maintain its cross-sectional shape. [13]

Question 86: What is the purpose of the propeller governor's speeder spring?

To provide a mechanical backup in case of hydraulic pressure failure
To prevent the propeller blades from over-pitching during descent
To set the desired RPM by opposing the flyweight force; the pilot compresses the spring via the prop control to select higher RPM (Correct answer)
To dampen vibration transmitted from the engine crankshaft to the propeller hub

Correct answer: To set the desired RPM by opposing the flyweight force; the pilot compresses the spring via the prop control to select higher RPM

The speeder spring in the governor establishes the set-point RPM by opposing the centrifugal flyweights; moving the prop control increases spring tension to allow higher RPM before the flyweights take action.

Question 87: Under 14 CFR Part 145, how long must a certificated repair station retain maintenance records for work performed on aircraft?

3 years from the date the work order was completed
2 years from the date the work was performed (Correct answer)
Until the next major inspection of the aircraft
1 year from the date the work was performed

Correct answer: 2 years from the date the work was performed

14 CFR 145.219 requires repair stations to retain maintenance records for at least 2 years from the date the work was performed or released.

Question 88: Which material is most commonly used for turbine engine combustion liner construction due to its high-temperature oxidation resistance?

Nickel-based superalloys or cobalt-based alloys (Correct answer)
Aluminum alloy 2024-T3
Stainless steel 304
Titanium 6Al-4V

Correct answer: Nickel-based superalloys or cobalt-based alloys

Nickel-based and cobalt-based superalloys are used for combustion liners because they retain mechanical properties and resist oxidation at the extreme temperatures in the combustor.

Question 89: During a compression check on a reciprocating engine, a low reading that improves significantly when oil is squirted into the cylinder indicates:

Burned exhaust valve
Worn or broken piston rings (Correct answer)
A cracked cylinder head
Leaking intake or exhaust valves

Correct answer: Worn or broken piston rings

Oil temporarily seals piston ring gaps, so a low reading that improves with oil injection points to worn or damaged piston rings as the source of leakage.

Question 90: What is the purpose of a turbine engine's thrust reverser?

To reduce turbine inlet temperature during high-power operations
To reverse engine rotation for towing operations
To prevent compressor surge during reverse taxiing
To redirect engine thrust forward to assist in decelerating the aircraft after landing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To redirect engine thrust forward to assist in decelerating the aircraft after landing

Thrust reversers redirect exhaust airflow forward, producing reverse thrust to help decelerate the aircraft during the landing roll.

Question 91: Which turbine engine bearing type is most commonly used to support axial thrust loads in the main rotor shaft?

Journal bearing
Tapered needle bearing
Roller bearing
Ball bearing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ball bearing

Ball bearings are used to handle axial (thrust) loads in turbine engines because their design allows them to resist forces along the shaft axis.

Question 92: What does the term 'fail-safe' mean as applied to aircraft structural design?

Safety factor of 1.5 is applied to all design loads
All structural members have identical strength to prevent uneven wear
If one load path fails, alternate structure carries the load to prevent catastrophic failure (Correct answer)
The structure will never fail under any load condition

Correct answer: If one load path fails, alternate structure carries the load to prevent catastrophic failure

Fail-safe design ensures that failure of a single structural member does not lead to catastrophic failure because redundant load paths carry the remaining load.

Question 93: During turbine engine ground run-up, a 'hung start' is characterized by:

Oil pressure failing to rise within the specified time
Engine RPM exceeding limits during start
RPM stabilizing below idle with exhaust temperature continuing to rise (Correct answer)
Compressor stall immediately upon introduction of fuel

Correct answer: RPM stabilizing below idle with exhaust temperature continuing to rise

A hung start occurs when the engine lights off but RPM stabilizes at a sub-idle value while EGT continues to rise, risking a hot start.

Question 94: When inspecting a composite structure for delamination, which non-destructive testing method uses sound wave reflections?

Eddy current inspection
Ultrasonic inspection (Correct answer)
Dye penetrant inspection
Magnetic particle inspection

Correct answer: Ultrasonic inspection

Ultrasonic inspection uses high-frequency sound waves that reflect off internal defects like delamination in composite structures.

Question 95: What is the structural purpose of intercostal members in an aircraft fuselage?

Connect the fuselage skin to the empennage
Seal pressure bulkheads against cabin pressurization
Act as attach fittings for the main landing gear
Provide support between frames to maintain skin rigidity and carry local loads (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Provide support between frames to maintain skin rigidity and carry local loads

Intercostals span between fuselage frames to stabilize the skin, transfer local loads (such as floor beam reactions), and maintain structural continuity.

Question 96: Carbon monoxide poisoning risk in cabin heating systems is associated with which engine type?

Reciprocating engines using exhaust heat exchangers (Correct answer)
Turbofan engines using bleed air heating
Turboprop engines with intercooled induction air
Electric-resistance cabin heaters

Correct answer: Reciprocating engines using exhaust heat exchangers

Reciprocating engines that use exhaust-to-cabin heat exchangers can leak carbon monoxide into the cabin if the heat exchanger develops cracks.

Question 97: When inspecting a steel control cable for airworthiness, what is the maximum number of broken wires allowed in any one lay length of a 7×19 cable before it must be replaced?

6 broken wires
3 broken wires (Correct answer)
2 broken wires
1 broken wire

Correct answer: 3 broken wires

FAA AC 43.13-1B states that a 7×19 cable must be replaced if 3 or more wires are broken in one lay length.

Question 98: What is the function of a torque tube in an aircraft flight control system?

To limit maximum deflection of control surfaces
To absorb vibration between control surfaces
To transmit rotational force along its axis to actuate a control surface (Correct answer)
To connect push-pull tubes end to end

Correct answer: To transmit rotational force along its axis to actuate a control surface

A torque tube transmits torsional (rotational) loads along its length to drive a control surface or mechanism.

Question 99: What is the standard rivet pitch (spacing between rivets in the same row) for most aircraft sheet metal repairs?

8D to 16D (8 to 16 rivet diameters)
6D to 12D (6 to 12 rivet diameters)
2D to 4D (2 to 4 rivet diameters)
4D to 8D (4 to 8 rivet diameters) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 4D to 8D (4 to 8 rivet diameters)

Standard rivet pitch in aircraft sheet metal work is 4D to 8D (four to eight times the rivet diameter), with 6D being most common.

Question 100: An AMT is installing a new compass and must verify its accuracy. What is the maximum allowable deviation error for a magnetic compass after compensation?

5° on any heading (Correct answer)
10° on any heading
3° on cardinal headings only
1° on any heading

Correct answer: 5° on any heading

14 CFR Part 23 and AC 43.13 require that residual magnetic compass deviation not exceed 10° on any heading after compensation — but FAA practical test standards and most aircraft specs call for no more than ±10°; however, the common AMT written test answer is 10°.

AMT Aviation Maintenance Technician Exam

The FAA AMT (Aviation Maintenance Technician) Exam certifies aircraft mechanics in airframe systems, powerplant engine maintenance, general maintenance knowledge, and FAA regulations, safety procedures, and documentation.

100

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180 min

Time Limit

70%

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Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

ecfr.gov — Renewal · verified Oct 2026
faa.gov — Eligibility, passing score, retake policy, score validity, test delivery, test dates, fees, score release, exam format, exam information · verified Oct 2026
psiexams.com — Test delivery · verified Oct 2026