Mixed Deck — All ABPN Topics Flashcards

Which ABPN subspecialty addresses disorders of nerves and muscles such as ALS and peripheral neuropathies?

Answer: Neuromuscular Medicine

Neuromuscular Medicine covers disorders of nerve and muscle.

Which demyelinating disease shows oligoclonal bands in the CSF and periventricular white-matter lesions?

Answer: Multiple sclerosis

MS produces CNS demyelination with CSF oligoclonal bands and MRI white-matter plaques.

Geriatric psychiatry as an ABPN subspecialty focuses primarily on which patient population?

Answer: Patients over age 65 with psychiatric and cognitive disorders

Geriatric psychiatry subspecialists are trained to manage the psychiatric, cognitive, and behavioral disorders particularly affecting adults 65 and older.

A patient cannot recognize objects placed in the hand by touch alone despite intact sensation. This is called:

Answer: Astereognosis

Astereognosis is the inability to identify objects by touch, indicating a parietal cortical lesion.

On average, how long does the active phase of schizophrenia last?

Answer: 1 Month

The active phase of schizophrenia, characterized by prominent positive symptoms like delusions and hallucinations, must last for at least one month to meet diagnostic criteria according to the DSM-5. While the overall duration of the disorder is longer, the 'active phase' specifically refers to this period of acute symptom presentation. This duration helps differentiate schizophrenia from brief psychotic disorder, which is shorter.

Which defense mechanism involves attributing one's own unacceptable feelings to another person?

Answer: Projection

Projection attributes one's own unacceptable impulses or feelings to someone else.

What cranial nerves are tested during a standard neurological examination?

Answer: All 12 cranial nerves (I-XII), testing smell, vision, eye movement, facial sensation/motor, hearing, taste, palate, voice, neck muscles, and tongue

The neurological exam systematically tests all 12 cranial nerves: I (olfactory), II (optic), III/IV/VI (oculomotor), V (trigeminal), VII (facial), VIII (vestibulocochlear), IX/X (glossopharyngeal/vagus), XI (accessory), XII (hypoglossal).

Which neurotransmitter/hormone is MOST involved in regulating the sleep-wake circadian rhythm and is secreted by the pineal gland?

Answer: Melatonin

Melatonin, secreted by the pineal gland in response to darkness, entrains the circadian clock and promotes sleep onset; its secretion is suppressed by light.

Which of the following does NOT qualify as a typical, targeted side effect of stimulants?

Answer: Ataxia

Common side effects of stimulant medications include changes in mood (e.g., irritability, anxiety), headache, and anorexia (decreased appetite). Ataxia, which refers to impaired coordination or balance, is not a typical or expected side effect of stimulants. Its presence would suggest an unusual or concerning neurological issue.

What is the most common metabolic cause of neonatal seizures?

Answer: Hypoglycemia

Hypoglycemia is the most common metabolic cause of neonatal seizures and requires prompt glucose correction; other causes include hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia.

Loss of pain and temperature sensation with preserved proprioception suggests a lesion of which tract?

Answer: Spinothalamic tract

The spinothalamic tract carries pain and temperature, so its lesion spares proprioception.

The EEG hallmark of absence seizures is:

Answer: 3-Hz generalized spike-and-wave

Absence seizures classically produce 3-Hz generalized spike-and-wave discharges.

The Neurodevelopmental Disabilities subspecialty of the ABPN is jointly certificated with which other specialty board?

Answer: American Board of Pediatrics (ABP)

Neurodevelopmental disabilities is a subspecialty jointly certified by ABPN and the American Board of Pediatrics, reflecting the primarily pediatric patient population.

Which percentage of schizophreniform disorders patients progress to schizoaffective or schizophrenia?

Answer: 66%

Schizophreniform disorder is diagnosed when symptoms of schizophrenia last for at least one month but less than six months. Approximately two-thirds (66%) of individuals diagnosed with schizophreniform disorder will eventually progress to a full diagnosis of schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder if their symptoms persist beyond the six-month mark. The remaining one-third may recover completely.

Which antiepileptic drug is most strongly associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)?

Answer: Lamotrigine

Lamotrigine carries a significant risk of serious skin reactions including SJS/TEN, especially when titrated rapidly or combined with valproate; slow titration substantially reduces this risk.

A patient with anorexia nervosa is being assessed. Which feature is a required diagnostic criterion?

Answer: Significantly low body weight relative to expectations

Anorexia nervosa requires restriction leading to a significantly low body weight along with fear of weight gain and body image disturbance.

Addiction psychiatry as an ABPN subspecialty addresses which clinical area?

Answer: Prevention, evaluation, and treatment of substance use disorders and behavioral addictions

Addiction psychiatry subspecialists have expertise in diagnosing and treating substance use disorders, co-occurring psychiatric disorders, and behavioral addictions.

Which of the following DOES NOT indicate that a person has positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

Answer: Avolition

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are those that add to or distort normal functions, such as delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized speech. Avolition, on the other hand, is a negative symptom, characterized by a decrease in motivated self-initiated purposeful activities. Negative symptoms represent a deficit or absence of normal functions, distinguishing them from the 'added' features of positive symptoms.

Which ethical principle MOST directly supports a patient's right to refuse medical treatment?

Answer: Autonomy

Autonomy is the ethical principle that upholds individuals' rights to make their own informed decisions about their healthcare, including refusal of treatment.

Which condition is characterized by sudden onset of severe OCD symptoms and motor or vocal tics in a child following group A streptococcal infection?

Answer: PANDAS (Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal infections)

PANDAS describes abrupt onset of OCD and/or tic disorders temporally associated with group A streptococcal (GAS) infections in prepubertal children.