Aircraft Maintenance Engineer (AME) License Exams — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A certificated mechanic moves to a new permanent mailing address. How soon must the FAA be notified?
- Within 10 days
- Within 60 days
- Within 30 days (Correct answer)
- At the next certificate renewal
Correct answer: Within 30 days
Under 14 CFR 65.21, a mechanic may not exercise certificate privileges after 30 days from moving unless the FAA has been notified in writing.
Question 2: Which component in a fuel system prevents fuel from flowing backward from the engine toward the tanks?
- Fuel strainer
- Firewall shutoff valve
- Fuel selector valve
- Check valve (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Check valve
Check valves are one-way valves that allow fuel flow in only one direction, preventing reverse flow that could drain lines or allow unintended fuel migration between tanks.
Question 3: Under 14 CFR 91.411, how often must the altimeter and static system be tested for IFR operation in controlled airspace?
- Only at each annual inspection
- Within the preceding 12 calendar months
- Every 100 hours of operation
- Within the preceding 24 calendar months (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Within the preceding 24 calendar months
14 CFR 91.411 requires the altimeter, static system, and automatic pressure altitude reporting to be tested within the preceding 24 calendar months.
Question 4: What is the primary function of applying carburetor heat in a piston-engine aircraft?
- To prevent or eliminate ice formation inside the carburetor (Correct answer)
- To pre-heat the induction air before cold engine start
- To increase engine power during high-altitude cruise
- To lean the fuel-air mixture during descent
Correct answer: To prevent or eliminate ice formation inside the carburetor
Carburetor heat routes warm air from around the exhaust manifold into the induction system to raise air temperature above freezing and prevent or melt carburetor ice.
Question 5: Which system is responsible for the aircraft's landing gear operation?
- The avionics system.
- The fuel system.
- The hydraulic system (Correct answer)
- The environmental control system.
Correct answer: The hydraulic system
The hydraulic system is primarily responsible for the operation of the aircraft's landing gear. It provides the immense power needed to extend and retract the heavy landing gear components smoothly and reliably. This system ensures that the aircraft can safely take off and land by controlling the deployment and stowage of the gear.
Question 6: A properly formed shop head on a solid rivet should be approximately:
- 1.5D wide and 0.5D high (Correct answer)
- 1.0D wide and 0.25D high
- 2D wide and 1D high
- 1.25D wide and 0.75D high
Correct answer: 1.5D wide and 0.5D high
Standard shop head dimensions are 1.5D in diameter and 0.5D in height.
Question 7: During an inspection of an aluminum alloy landing gear component, a type of corrosion is found that proceeds along the grain boundaries of the metal. This form of corrosion is not readily visible on the surface in its early stages. What is this type of corrosion called?
- Intergranular Corrosion (Correct answer)
- Surface Corrosion
- Filiform Corrosion
- Pitting Corrosion
Correct answer: Intergranular Corrosion
Intergranular corrosion is an attack along the grain boundaries of an alloy. It is often caused by improper heat treatment and can significantly weaken the material from within, making it difficult to detect visually until it becomes severe.
Question 8: On an aircraft equipped with an Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS), a 'HYD QTY LOW' message appears in amber. What does this color typically signify?
- An advisory message indicating a system's status.
- A failure of the EICAS display unit itself.
- A warning requiring immediate and urgent crew action.
- A caution requiring immediate crew awareness and possible future action. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A caution requiring immediate crew awareness and possible future action.
EICAS uses a standardized color scheme to denote the urgency of a message. Red is used for warnings (immediate action required), while amber (or yellow) is used for cautions, which require immediate crew awareness but may not require immediate action.
Question 9: A 'continuous-loop' fire detector (such as Kidde or Fenwal) works by:
- Sampling nacelle air every few seconds
- Measuring CO2 levels in the nacelle atmosphere
- Detecting infrared signatures of flames using a photoelectric cell
- Sensing a change in electrical resistance or capacitance along a sensing element due to heat (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Sensing a change in electrical resistance or capacitance along a sensing element due to heat
Continuous-loop systems use a sensing element that changes its electrical properties when heated, allowing fire detection anywhere along the loop's length.
Question 10: A maintenance engineer is working a long overnight shift and recognizes they are feeling the effects of fatigue. According to human factors principles, what is the most effective immediate countermeasure to mitigate the risk of error?
- Informing their supervisor and taking a short, strategic nap if permitted. (Correct answer)
- Increasing the hangar lighting to maximum brightness.
- Drinking a large coffee for a quick energy boost.
- Rushing to complete the final tasks to finish the shift sooner.
Correct answer: Informing their supervisor and taking a short, strategic nap if permitted.
While caffeine can provide a temporary mask for fatigue, it doesn't resolve the underlying physiological need for rest. The most effective physiological countermeasure for fatigue is sleep. Taking a short, strategic nap has been shown to improve performance. Informing a supervisor is also a critical safety step in a Fatigue Risk Management System (FRMS).
Question 11: Introducing the wrong fuel type into an aircraft (e.g., Jet-A into an avgas aircraft) is specifically called:
- Incorrect servicing
- Fuel substitution
- Misfueling (Correct answer)
- Cross-contamination
Correct answer: Misfueling
Misfueling refers to the introduction of the wrong fuel type into an aircraft, which can cause engine failure and is one of the most serious maintenance errors.
Question 12: In the context of the Brayton cycle as it applies to a gas turbine engine, what process occurs within the combustion chamber?
- Isentropic expansion
- Constant-volume heat addition
- Constant-pressure heat addition (Correct answer)
- Isentropic compression
Correct answer: Constant-pressure heat addition
The Brayton cycle is the thermodynamic model for gas turbine engines. The process within the combustor, where fuel is burned to heat the compressed air, is modeled as a constant-pressure (isobaric) heat addition process.
Question 13: An experienced AME is performing a routine inspection that they have done hundreds of times. They begin to skip a few steps in the checklist, assuming everything is normal as it usually is. This behaviour is a primary example of which human factors error?
- Lack of Knowledge
- Distraction
- Complacency (Correct answer)
- Stress
Correct answer: Complacency
Complacency is a significant human factor error where extensive experience on a repetitive task leads to a false sense of security. This causes the individual to become less vigilant and potentially skip crucial steps. The AME's assumption that everything is normal because it always has been is a classic sign of complacency.
Question 14: In the context of the SHEL model for analyzing human factors, which component represents the rules, procedures, and manuals used by maintenance personnel?
- Hardware
- Environment
- Software (Correct answer)
- Liveware
Correct answer: Software
The SHEL model uses 'Software' to describe the non-physical aspects of the system, including rules, procedures, regulations, manuals, and checklists that govern the maintenance task. 'Hardware' refers to tools and equipment, 'Environment' is the physical and organizational setting, and 'Liveware' refers to the human element.
Question 15: A turbine hot start (EGT exceeding limits during start) is most commonly caused by:
- An excessively rich fuel/air mixture or insufficient airflow (Correct answer)
- A failed fuel quantity indicator
- Low oil pressure
- Excessive starter speed
Correct answer: An excessively rich fuel/air mixture or insufficient airflow
Too much fuel relative to airflow drives temperature above limits.
Question 16: In a modern Flight Management System (FMS), what is the primary source of real-time, high-accuracy position information used to continuously update and correct the aircraft's calculated position?
- Global Positioning System (GPS) (Correct answer)
- VOR/DME radio navigation inputs
- Inertial Reference System (IRS) free-inertial calculation
- Air Data Computer (ADC) calculations
Correct answer: Global Positioning System (GPS)
While the FMS uses a blend of sensors for position determination, the Global Positioning System (GPS) is the primary source for accurate, continuous, and global position updating. The Inertial Reference System (IRS) calculates position but is subject to drift over time and relies on updates from GPS to maintain its accuracy.
Question 17: An aircraft is being prepared for flight at a remote station without ground power available. The AME needs to power the ground handling bus to operate the cargo bay lights and refueling system. Which power source would typically be used in this scenario?
- The main engine-driven generators.
- A Ram Air Turbine (RAT).
- The main aircraft battery via an inverter.
- The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) generator. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) generator.
The ground handling bus is typically powered by the APU generator or an external power unit. Since external power is unavailable, the APU would be started to provide electrical power for ground operations like cargo lighting and refueling without needing to start the main engines.
Question 18: What is the typical repair method for minor nicks and gouges on aluminum propeller blade leading edges?
- Replacing the blade immediately regardless of size
- Filing the nick smooth and blending it into the blade profile (Correct answer)
- Applying epoxy filler to restore the original contour
- Welding or brazing the damaged area
Correct answer: Filing the nick smooth and blending it into the blade profile
Minor nicks on aluminum propeller blades are repaired by carefully filing them smooth and blending the edges to prevent stress concentration and fatigue cracking.
Question 19: Why is pilot training compliance crucial to aviation safety?
- To reduce flight time.
- To limit the number of passengers on board.
- To ensure pilots can manage aircraft systems.
- To ensure pilots meet safety standards and are qualified for safe flight operations (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To ensure pilots meet safety standards and are qualified for safe flight operations
Pilot training compliance is fundamental to aviation safety because it ensures that pilots possess the necessary knowledge, skills, and experience to operate aircraft safely and proficiently. Regulatory bodies set stringent standards for initial training, certification, and recurrent checks to ensure pilots are competent in all aspects of flight, including emergency procedures. This rigorous adherence to training protocols minimizes human error and significantly contributes to the overall safety of flights.
Question 20: During a routine inspection of a 24-volt lead-acid battery, an AME notices a significant difference in specific gravity readings between individual cells (e.g., one cell is 1.275 while another is 1.220). What is the most appropriate action?
- Charge the battery and re-check the specific gravity.
- Top off the low cell with distilled water and return to service.
- Replace the battery as it is likely nearing the end of its service life. (Correct answer)
- Add sulfuric acid to the low cell to equalize the specific gravity.
Correct answer: Replace the battery as it is likely nearing the end of its service life.
A specific gravity difference of 0.050 or more between cells in a lead-acid battery indicates that the battery is approaching the end of its useful life and should be considered for replacement. Topping off with water or simply recharging will not fix the underlying issue of a failing cell. Adding acid is never the correct procedure for adjusting specific gravity in the field.
Question 21: Under 14 CFR 145.221, how soon must a repair station report a serious failure, malfunction, or defect to the FAA?
- Within 96 hours after discovering it (Correct answer)
- Within 10 days after discovering it
- Within 24 hours after discovering it
- At the next scheduled FAA surveillance visit
Correct answer: Within 96 hours after discovering it
14 CFR 145.221 requires a report within 96 hours after a serious failure, malfunction, or defect is discovered.
Question 22: MIL-H-5606 petroleum-based hydraulic fluid is dyed what color for identification?
- Red (Correct answer)
- Blue
- Purple
- Amber
Correct answer: Red
MIL-H-5606 is red, while Skydrol phosphate ester fluids are typically purple.
Question 23: A lead-acid aircraft battery requires frequent water additions and shows signs of spewing. What is the most likely cause?
- Generator output too low
- Voltage regulator set too high, overcharging the battery (Correct answer)
- Battery cables too large
- A tripped reverse-current relay
Correct answer: Voltage regulator set too high, overcharging the battery
Overcharging causes excessive gassing and water loss, usually from a high regulator setting.
Question 24: To use a mechanic certificate under 14 CFR 65.83, what recent experience does a mechanic need?
- At least 100 hours of maintenance in the preceding 12 months
- At least 12 months of mechanic work within the preceding 36 months
- At least 6 months of mechanic work within the preceding 24 months (Correct answer)
- Annual recurrent training at an FAA-approved school
Correct answer: At least 6 months of mechanic work within the preceding 24 months
14 CFR 65.83 requires 6 months of mechanic work in the preceding 24 months, or an FAA finding that the person can do the work.
Question 25: Which of the following is considered the primary cause of wear and malfunction in the majority of aircraft hydraulic systems?
- Chemical breakdown from exposure to UV light.
- Particulate contamination in the fluid. (Correct answer)
- Entrained air causing cavitation.
- Fluid viscosity breakdown due to high temperatures.
Correct answer: Particulate contamination in the fluid.
Particulate contamination is widely recognized as the leading cause of hydraulic system problems, accounting for a vast majority of failures. Tiny particles of metal, rubber, and dirt act as an abrasive, causing scoring and wear on the precision-machined surfaces of pumps, valves, and actuators, which leads to internal leakage, reduced efficiency, and eventual component failure.
Question 26: An operator wants to meet an AD by a method other than the one the AD specifies. What is required?
- A Form 337 filed with the local FSDO
- A logbook entry signed by an A&P mechanic
- A Service Bulletin from the manufacturer
- An Alternative Method of Compliance (AMOC) approved by the FAA office named in the AD (Correct answer)
Correct answer: An Alternative Method of Compliance (AMOC) approved by the FAA office named in the AD
14 CFR 39.19 allows other compliance methods only through an FAA-approved AMOC.
Question 27: An AME is troubleshooting an aircraft hydraulic system and observes that the system pressure fluctuates rapidly and excessively when a component is operated. The pump is known to be in good condition. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
- The hydraulic fluid is contaminated with water.
- The system filter is completely clogged.
- The system relief valve is stuck in the open position.
- The accumulator has lost its nitrogen pre-charge. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The accumulator has lost its nitrogen pre-charge.
The primary function of an accumulator is to dampen pressure surges and supplement pump flow. If the nitrogen pre-charge is lost, the accumulator's diaphragm or piston has no gaseous 'cushion' to absorb pressure spikes from pump operation and component actuation, leading to rapid and excessive pressure fluctuations.
Question 28: What is 'blade angle' in propeller terminology?
- The angle between the leading edge and trailing edge
- The sweep angle of the blade from root to tip
- The angle between the blade chord line and the plane of rotation (Correct answer)
- The angle at which the propeller is mounted on the engine shaft
Correct answer: The angle between the blade chord line and the plane of rotation
Blade angle (pitch angle) is measured between the blade chord line and the plane of rotation, determining how much air is deflected with each revolution.
Question 29: Why must Jet-A fuel contain a static dissipater additive (SDA) during refueling operations?
- Jet-A is a poor electrical conductor and SDAs allow static charge to dissipate safely, reducing ignition risk (Correct answer)
- Jet-A must be bonded to ground but requires no chemical additives
- Jet-A has no static concern and SDAs are optional
- Jet-A is naturally conductive and does not accumulate static charge
Correct answer: Jet-A is a poor electrical conductor and SDAs allow static charge to dissipate safely, reducing ignition risk
Jet-A is a poor electrical conductor; static dissipater additives ensure accumulated static charge dissipates safely, reducing the risk of electrostatic ignition during fueling.
Question 30: What is the primary purpose of the aircraft's hydraulic system?
- To monitor the aircraft's fuel levels.
- To manage the aircraft's electrical systems.
- To control the aircraft's engine performance.
- To provide power for critical flight functions such as landing gear and brakes (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To provide power for critical flight functions such as landing gear and brakes
The aircraft's hydraulic system is crucial for operating heavy-duty components that require significant force. It uses pressurized fluid to power critical flight functions, such as extending and retracting the landing gear, operating the brakes, and moving flight control surfaces. This system ensures reliable and powerful actuation for essential aircraft operations.
Question 31: A reciprocating engine backfires through the carburetor. The most likely cause is:
- Advanced ignition timing on the exhaust side
- An excessively rich mixture
- A lean fuel/air mixture (Correct answer)
- High oil pressure
Correct answer: A lean fuel/air mixture
A lean mixture burns slowly and can still be burning when the intake valve opens.
Question 32: A maintenance technician is inspecting the combustion section of a gas turbine engine. Which of the following is a primary function of this section?
- To extract mechanical energy to power the engine's accessories.
- To increase the mass of air flowing through the engine using bypass ducts.
- To add chemical energy to the compressed air by burning fuel at a constant pressure. (Correct answer)
- To reduce the temperature of the gas stream before it enters the turbine.
Correct answer: To add chemical energy to the compressed air by burning fuel at a constant pressure.
The combustion chamber's primary role is to add energy to the system. It does this by mixing fuel with the high-pressure air from the compressor and burning the mixture. This combustion process occurs at a relatively constant pressure and dramatically increases the temperature and volume of the gases before they enter the turbine.
Question 33: Which of the following NDT (Non-Destructive Testing) methods is most suitable for detecting subsurface delaminations in a carbon fiber composite wing skin that are not visible from the surface?
- Visual Inspection with a magnifying glass
- Ultrasonic Inspection (Correct answer)
- Dye Penetrant Inspection
- Eddy Current Inspection
Correct answer: Ultrasonic Inspection
Ultrasonic inspection is the most widely used and effective method for detecting subsurface defects like delaminations and disbonds in composite structures. High-frequency sound waves are introduced into the material, and the reflections are analyzed to identify internal flaws. Dye penetrant and visual inspections are limited to surface defects, and eddy current is primarily used for conductive materials.
Question 34: What is the role of the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)?
- It monitors airline profits.
- It controls the pricing of airline tickets.
- It regulates airport security procedures.
- It sets international safety and operational standards (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It sets international safety and operational standards
The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) plays a vital role in global aviation by setting international safety and operational standards. As a specialized agency of the United Nations, ICAO develops international Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs) that member states adopt into their national aviation regulations. This harmonization of standards ensures a consistent level of safety and efficiency across international air travel.
Question 35: An AME is feeling rushed to complete a task before the end of their shift to avoid delaying a flight. This feeling is a classic example of which of the 'Dirty Dozen' in human factors?
- Fatigue
- Lack of Communication
- Pressure (Correct answer)
- Complacency
Correct answer: Pressure
The scenario describes feeling rushed due to a deadline, which is a textbook example of the human factor 'Pressure.' Pressure can be internal (self-induced) or external (from the organization) and often leads to cutting corners or making mistakes. The other options are also part of the Dirty Dozen but do not fit the scenario as well.
Question 36: Which of the following tasks is considered 'Elementary Work' under the CARs and may be performed by a person who is not an AME, provided they are properly trained and authorized by the air operator?
- Repairing a crack in the engine cowling.
- Performing a major modification to the avionics system.
- Replacing a main landing gear tire on a Boeing 737.
- Replenishing the hydraulic fluid. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Replenishing the hydraulic fluid.
Elementary work, as defined in CARs, includes tasks like replenishing fluids (oil, hydraulic fluid). These tasks are not subject to a maintenance release and can be performed by trained individuals other than AMEs, such as pilots or other authorized personnel, under an air operator's approved system. The other options are complex tasks requiring a licensed AME.
Question 37: Which part of 14 CFR covers Airworthiness Directives?
- Part 39 (Correct answer)
- Part 21
- Part 65
- Part 43
Correct answer: Part 39
14 CFR Part 39 sets out the authority for ADs and the requirement to comply with them.
Question 38: What is the first step in troubleshooting an aircraft system failure?
- Start repairs immediately.
- Replace all components of the system.
- Test the entire aircraft.
- Gather information and identify the problem (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Gather information and identify the problem
In aircraft troubleshooting, the initial and most crucial step is to gather comprehensive information and accurately identify the problem. This involves consulting pilot reports, maintenance logs, error codes, and conducting initial inspections to understand the symptoms and context of the failure. Without a clear understanding of the issue, any subsequent repair attempts would be inefficient, potentially incorrect, and could lead to further complications or safety risks.
Question 39: In a semi-monocoque fuselage, what is the primary function of stringers?
- To transfer skin stress to the formers and prevent buckling of the skin. (Correct answer)
- To provide the main longitudinal strength and absorb bending loads.
- To serve as the primary attachment points for the wings and empennage.
- To give the fuselage its cross-sectional shape and support concentrated loads.
Correct answer: To transfer skin stress to the formers and prevent buckling of the skin.
Stringers are longitudinal members that run the length of the fuselage. Their main purpose is to stiffen the skin and prevent it from buckling under compression and shear loads. They also transfer the stresses from the skin to the transverse frames (formers).
Question 40: A hydraulic pump chatters and the system pressure fluctuates. The most likely cause is:
- Air in the system or a restricted pump inlet (Correct answer)
- System relief valve set too high
- Accumulator preload too high
- Excessive fluid in the reservoir
Correct answer: Air in the system or a restricted pump inlet
Air or inlet restriction causes cavitation, producing chatter and pressure fluctuation.
Question 41: The primary purpose of a firewall fuel shutoff valve is to:
- Balance fuel flow between multiple carburetors
- Regulate fuel pressure to the carburetor
- Prevent fuel flow when the engine is not running
- Isolate the fuel supply from the engine compartment in case of fire or emergency (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Isolate the fuel supply from the engine compartment in case of fire or emergency
The firewall shutoff valve allows the crew to cut off fuel flow to the engine compartment in an emergency, starving a fire of its fuel source.
Question 42: An AME is performing a functional test of a TCAS II system. The test set simulates a conflict that generates a 'Climb, Climb' aural alert and a corresponding visual command on the PFD. What type of advisory has been generated?
- Traffic Advisory (TA)
- System Test Advisory (STA)
- Resolution Advisory (RA) (Correct answer)
- Proximity Advisory (PA)
Correct answer: Resolution Advisory (RA)
TCAS II provides two levels of alerts. A Traffic Advisory (TA) simply alerts the crew to the presence of nearby traffic. A Resolution Advisory (RA) is a command that instructs the pilot to perform a specific vertical maneuver, such as 'Climb' or 'Descend', to avoid a collision.
Question 43: Why is it important to have certified technicians for aircraft maintenance?
- To improve fuel efficiency.
- To ensure safe and effective maintenance according to regulatory standards (Correct answer)
- To increase the complexity of maintenance.
- To reduce the number of inspections.
Correct answer: To ensure safe and effective maintenance according to regulatory standards
It is crucial to have certified technicians for aircraft maintenance because they possess the specialized knowledge, skills, and training required to perform complex tasks safely and effectively. Certification ensures that technicians adhere to strict regulatory standards and best practices, which is vital for maintaining the airworthiness and safety of aircraft. Their expertise directly contributes to preventing accidents and ensuring reliable operations.
Question 44: Which of the following best describes the primary function of an Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS)?
- To monitor engine parameters and alert the crew to system malfunctions.
- To provide aircraft attitude (pitch, roll) and heading information to the flight displays. (Correct answer)
- To provide long-range navigation data using GPS and inertial sensors.
- To calculate optimal flight paths and fuel consumption.
Correct answer: To provide aircraft attitude (pitch, roll) and heading information to the flight displays.
An Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS) is designed to replace traditional mechanical gyroscopic instruments. It uses solid-state sensors like accelerometers, gyroscopes, and magnetometers to compute and output the aircraft's pitch, roll, and yaw, which is then sent to the EFIS displays, autopilot, and other systems.
Question 45: When does an Inspection Authorization expire?
- On the holder's birthday every 2 years
- 24 calendar months after it is issued
- On December 31 of each year
- On March 31 of each odd-numbered year (Correct answer)
Correct answer: On March 31 of each odd-numbered year
Under 14 CFR 65.92, an IA expires on March 31 of each odd-numbered year.
Question 46: How long is a temporary airman certificate valid for a newly certificated mechanic?
- 60 days
- 90 days
- 120 days (Correct answer)
- 180 days
Correct answer: 120 days
A temporary airman certificate is valid for up to 120 days while the permanent certificate is processed.
Question 47: Which of the following describes a 'trip-free' circuit breaker?
- A circuit breaker that cannot be manually reset until it has cooled down.
- A circuit breaker that requires a special tool to be reset.
- A circuit breaker that can be reset remotely from the cockpit.
- A circuit breaker that will open a circuit even if the operating control is held in the 'ON' position. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A circuit breaker that will open a circuit even if the operating control is held in the 'ON' position.
A 'trip-free' circuit breaker is a safety feature designed to ensure that it will open the circuit during an overload or fault condition, regardless of whether the manual operating lever or button is held in the closed (ON) position. This prevents the crew from forcing a circuit to remain closed against a persistent fault.
Question 48: Which of the following describes the primary function of the turbine section in a gas turbine engine?
- To drive the compressor and accessories by extracting energy from the hot gas stream. (Correct answer)
- To decrease the velocity of the exhaust gases to prevent structural damage.
- To increase the pressure of the air entering the combustion chamber.
- To mix fuel with compressed air and ignite the mixture.
Correct answer: To drive the compressor and accessories by extracting energy from the hot gas stream.
The turbine section's main purpose is to extract kinetic and thermal energy from the high-velocity hot gases exiting the combustion chamber. This extracted energy is converted into mechanical power to rotate the main shaft, which in turn drives the compressor section and engine-driven accessories.
Question 49: Why is a couplant applied between an ultrasonic transducer and the test part?
- To exclude air so sound energy transmits into the part (Correct answer)
- To cool the transducer crystal
- To make indications visible under black light
- To demagnetize the surface
Correct answer: To exclude air so sound energy transmits into the part
Air reflects nearly all ultrasonic energy, so a couplant fills the gap and allows sound to enter the part.
Question 50: Why are aircraft materials chosen for their strength-to-weight ratio?
- To reduce fuel consumption and increase efficiency (Correct answer)
- To decrease the aircraft's operational costs.
- To simplify the aircraft's design.
- To increase the aircraft's overall weight.
Correct answer: To reduce fuel consumption and increase efficiency
Aircraft materials are meticulously chosen for their high strength-to-weight ratio to significantly reduce the aircraft's overall weight. Lighter aircraft require less fuel to operate, directly leading to reduced fuel consumption and increased operational efficiency. This material selection is crucial for achieving optimal performance, range, and cost-effectiveness in aviation.
Question 51: What is the primary function of a Constant Speed Drive (CSD) unit in an aircraft's AC electrical system?
- To act as a circuit breaker in case of an electrical fault.
- To rectify alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC).
- To convert variable engine RPM into a constant generator RPM. (Correct answer)
- To regulate the voltage output of the generator.
Correct answer: To convert variable engine RPM into a constant generator RPM.
The primary purpose of a Constant Speed Drive (CSD) is to take the variable rotational speed from the engine's accessory gearbox and convert it into a constant speed for the AC generator. This ensures the generator produces a stable frequency (typically 400 Hz) required by aircraft systems, regardless of changes in engine thrust.
Question 52: Why are airport security regulations important?
- To manage passenger comfort.
- To increase airport profits.
- To monitor the behavior of airport staff.
- To ensure safety by preventing security threats and unauthorized access (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To ensure safety by preventing security threats and unauthorized access
Airport security regulations are paramount for safeguarding passengers, staff, and aircraft from potential threats. These regulations establish rigorous protocols, such as passenger and baggage screenings and access controls, specifically designed to deter and detect security breaches. By preventing unauthorized access or the introduction of dangerous items, they maintain a secure environment essential for safe aviation operations.
Question 53: What is the primary operational characteristic of a constant-delivery hydraulic pump, such as a gear-type pump?
- It varies its output flow based on system pressure demand.
- It requires no system pressure regulator as it self-regulates.
- It delivers a fixed volume of fluid per revolution, regardless of system pressure. (Correct answer)
- It can only operate effectively at low RPMs.
Correct answer: It delivers a fixed volume of fluid per revolution, regardless of system pressure.
A constant-delivery (or constant-displacement) pump moves a fixed amount of fluid for each rotation of the pump's shaft. Because it is always attempting to move this fluid, the system must incorporate a pressure regulator or relief valve to divert excess flow and prevent over-pressurization when there is low demand.
Question 54: What is the purpose of fusible plugs installed in aircraft wheels?
- Allow the tire to be inflated with nitrogen
- Indicate the wheel bearing has been over-torqued
- Prevent the tire from slipping on the rim
- Release tire pressure if the wheel overheats from excessive braking (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Release tire pressure if the wheel overheats from excessive braking
Fusible plugs melt at a set temperature to deflate the tire and prevent an explosive tire failure.
Question 55: Eddy current inspection is especially well suited for which task?
- Finding voids in fiberglass radomes
- Measuring fuel contamination levels
- Detecting cracks around fastener holes in aluminum skins (Correct answer)
- Inspecting rubber hoses for deterioration
Correct answer: Detecting cracks around fastener holes in aluminum skins
Eddy current detects surface and near-surface flaws in electrically conductive materials, such as cracks at fastener holes.
Question 56: Why are aircraft fuselage structures designed with pressurization in mind?
- To improve the aerodynamics of the aircraft.
- To reduce weight and increase fuel efficiency.
- To increase the aircraft's speed.
- To ensure safety and comfort by maintaining cabin pressure (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To ensure safety and comfort by maintaining cabin pressure
Aircraft fuselage structures are designed with pressurization in mind to ensure the safety and comfort of occupants at high altitudes. As an aircraft climbs, the external atmospheric pressure drops significantly, making it unsafe for human respiration. Pressurization maintains a breathable and comfortable cabin pressure, preventing altitude sickness and allowing for normal physiological function.
Question 57: What is the primary aerodynamic benefit of installing winglets on an aircraft's wingtips?
- To reduce induced drag by weakening wingtip vortices. (Correct answer)
- To act as primary control surfaces for roll.
- To increase the structural rigidity of the wing.
- To increase the critical Mach number.
Correct answer: To reduce induced drag by weakening wingtip vortices.
Winglets are designed to reduce induced drag, which is created by wingtip vortices. By limiting the formation and strength of these vortices, winglets improve the wing's efficiency, leading to benefits like reduced fuel consumption and increased range.
Question 58: Which document is NOT required on board a US-registered airplane flying only within the United States?
- FCC radio station license (Correct answer)
- Airworthiness certificate
- Operating limitations
- Registration certificate
Correct answer: FCC radio station license
An FCC aircraft radio station license is needed only for international flights; the airworthiness certificate, registration, and operating limitations are always required.
Question 59: When adding hydraulic fluid to an air/oil (oleo) shock strut, the strut should normally be in what condition?
- Fully extended with full air pressure
- Jacked so the wheel is just off the ground with full pressure
- Fully compressed with the air charge released (Correct answer)
- Half extended with half the specified pressure
Correct answer: Fully compressed with the air charge released
Servicing is done with the air released and the strut fully compressed so the correct fluid level can be established.
Question 60: Why are aircraft maintenance records important for regulatory compliance?
- To track repairs and ensure compliance with safety regulations (Correct answer)
- To determine the number of flight hours.
- To monitor fuel consumption.
- To assess passenger comfort.
Correct answer: To track repairs and ensure compliance with safety regulations
Aircraft maintenance records are extremely important for regulatory compliance as they provide a verifiable history of all repairs, inspections, and modifications performed on an aircraft. These records demonstrate that the aircraft has been maintained according to established safety regulations and manufacturer guidelines. Regulatory bodies rely on these detailed logs to ensure ongoing airworthiness and accountability.
Question 61: A torque wrench with a 10-inch effective lever is used with a 2-inch extension to reach 240 in-lb on a bolt. What should the wrench read?
- 240 in-lb
- 200 in-lb (Correct answer)
- 288 in-lb
- 220 in-lb
Correct answer: 200 in-lb
Reading = 240 × 10 / (10 + 2) = 200 in-lb.
Question 62: How does routine inspection help prevent aircraft failures?
- It decreases operational costs.
- It helps track the number of flight hours.
- It identifies issues early and reduces the risk of in-flight failures (Correct answer)
- It reduces the number of passengers.
Correct answer: It identifies issues early and reduces the risk of in-flight failures
Routine inspection is fundamental to preventing aircraft failures by identifying potential issues early in their development. By regularly checking for wear, damage, or malfunctions, technicians can address problems before they become critical and lead to in-flight failures. This proactive approach significantly reduces risks and enhances overall aviation safety.
Question 63: Centrifugal twisting moments (CTM) acting on propeller blades tend to:
- Hold blades in a fixed position
- Move blades toward low pitch (fine) (Correct answer)
- Cause blades to feather automatically
- Move blades toward high pitch (coarse)
Correct answer: Move blades toward low pitch (fine)
Centrifugal twisting moments act to flatten the blade toward low pitch because centrifugal force tends to rotate the blade chord into the plane of rotation.
Question 64: What is the primary safety advantage of a dual independent magneto ignition system in a reciprocating aircraft engine?
- It eliminates the need for battery power during flight
- It doubles the engine's rated power output
- It provides redundancy so the engine continues running if one magneto fails (Correct answer)
- It automatically adjusts ignition timing with altitude changes
Correct answer: It provides redundancy so the engine continues running if one magneto fails
Dual magnetos are self-contained and independent of each other, so a failure of one magneto in flight does not stop the engine since the other continues to provide ignition.
Question 65: On a hydraulically actuated variable-pitch propeller, what fluid is typically used as the actuating medium?
- Water-glycol mixture
- MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid
- Engine oil (Correct answer)
- Skydrol hydraulic fluid
Correct answer: Engine oil
Most variable-pitch propeller systems use engine oil as the actuating fluid because it is readily available and provides the required pressure.
Question 66: What is the significance of air traffic control (ATC) regulations?
- To manage flight crew salaries.
- To guide aircraft safely and efficiently in the airspace (Correct answer)
- To monitor passenger behavior.
- To improve flight entertainment.
Correct answer: To guide aircraft safely and efficiently in the airspace
Air traffic control (ATC) regulations are significant because they provide the framework for guiding aircraft safely and efficiently through the airspace. These regulations dictate procedures for takeoff, landing, and en-route flight, preventing collisions and managing the flow of air traffic. ATC ensures an organized and secure environment for all aircraft operations.
Question 67: Which of the following non-destructive testing (NDT) methods is most suitable for detecting subsurface defects in a non-ferrous material like an aluminum wing spar?
- Eddy Current Inspection
- Dye Penetrant Inspection
- Ultrasonic Inspection (Correct answer)
- Magnetic Particle Inspection
Correct answer: Ultrasonic Inspection
Ultrasonic inspection is highly effective for detecting subsurface flaws like cracks and corrosion in both ferrous and non-ferrous materials. Magnetic particle inspection only works on ferromagnetic materials. Dye penetrant is for surface-breaking defects only. Eddy current is primarily for surface and near-surface defects.
Question 68: An Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO) in Canada is primarily regulated under which part of the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs)?
- CAR Part VI - General Operating and Flight Rules
- CAR Part V - Airworthiness (Correct answer)
- CAR Part IV - Personnel Licensing and Training
- CAR Part VII - Commercial Air Services
Correct answer: CAR Part V - Airworthiness
CAR Part V, specifically Subpart 573 (CAR 573), covers the approval and regulation of Approved Maintenance Organizations (AMOs). This part details the requirements for facilities, personnel, equipment, and procedures that an organization must meet to be certified to perform maintenance on aircraft.
Question 69: Before checking the air preload on a hydraulic accumulator, what must be done?
- Pressurize the system to normal operating pressure
- Remove the accumulator from the aircraft
- Relieve all hydraulic system pressure (Correct answer)
- Drain the hydraulic reservoir
Correct answer: Relieve all hydraulic system pressure
Preload can only be read accurately when fluid pressure is zero so the gauge shows nitrogen charge alone.
Question 70: According to Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs), what is the minimum age requirement for an individual to be issued an Aircraft Maintenance Engineer (AME) licence?
- 18 years
- There is no minimum age, only an experience requirement.
- 25 years
- 21 years (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 21 years
CAR 566.03 outlines the requirements for the issuance of an AME Licence. Among these requirements, an applicant must have attained the age of 21 years prior to the licence being issued.
Question 71: Which seal material is compatible with phosphate ester (Skydrol) hydraulic fluid?
- Natural rubber
- Butyl rubber (Correct answer)
- Buna-N
- Neoprene
Correct answer: Butyl rubber
Phosphate ester fluids attack petroleum-compatible seals, so butyl rubber or ethylene propylene seals are used.
Question 72: An AME is inspecting a composite control surface and finds a defect where the layers of the laminate have separated. What is this type of damage called?
- Delamination (Correct answer)
- Porosity
- Microcracking
- Debonding
Correct answer: Delamination
Delamination is the specific term for the separation of layers or plies within a laminated composite material. Debonding refers to the failure of an adhesive joint between two separate components, such as the skin and a stiffener.
Question 73: When selecting the proper wire size for an electrical installation in an aircraft, which of the following is a critical factor according to the American Wire Gauge (AWG) standard?
- The wire's cross-sectional area. (Correct answer)
- The wire's flexibility rating.
- The color of the wire insulation.
- The brand of the wire manufacturer.
Correct answer: The wire's cross-sectional area.
The American Wire Gauge (AWG) system sizes wires based on their diameter and corresponding cross-sectional area. A smaller AWG number indicates a larger wire diameter and greater current-carrying capacity. The cross-sectional area is the primary factor in determining the wire's resistance and ability to handle current without overheating.
Question 74: Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft not used in air carrier service under Part 121, 129, or 135?
- Any aircraft owner, even without a pilot certificate
- Only a mechanic with an Inspection Authorization
- A student pilot under instructor supervision only
- A certificated pilot on an aircraft the pilot owns or operates (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A certificated pilot on an aircraft the pilot owns or operates
14 CFR 43.3(g) lets a pilot certificate holder perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft they own or operate that is not used under Parts 121, 129, or 135.
Question 75: What is the primary function of a hydraulic accumulator?
- Cool the hydraulic fluid before it returns to the reservoir
- Filter contaminants from the hydraulic fluid
- Prevent reverse flow from actuators to the pump
- Store fluid under pressure to dampen surges and supplement pump output (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Store fluid under pressure to dampen surges and supplement pump output
An accumulator stores pressurized fluid to absorb pressure surges and provide extra flow during peak demand or a pump failure.
Question 76: What is the function of a thermal relief valve in a hydraulic system?
- Bypass fluid around a clogged filter element
- Relieve pressure caused by expansion of trapped fluid as temperature rises (Correct answer)
- Route hot fluid through the heat exchanger
- Open when the main system pump exceeds maximum output
Correct answer: Relieve pressure caused by expansion of trapped fluid as temperature rises
Thermal relief valves protect isolated lines from excessive pressure caused by thermal expansion of trapped fluid.
Question 77: Which component of the aircraft's fuel system ensures consistent fuel delivery?
- The fuel filter.
- The fuel gauge.
- The fuel pump (Correct answer)
- The fuel tank.
Correct answer: The fuel pump
The fuel pump is a vital component in an aircraft's fuel system, responsible for drawing fuel from the tanks and delivering it under pressure to the engines. This consistent fuel delivery is essential for engine operation, ensuring a steady and reliable supply regardless of flight attitude or altitude. Without a functioning fuel pump, engines would not receive the necessary fuel to operate.
Question 78: What is the function of the aircraft's electrical system?
- To maintain cabin pressure.
- To provide power to the aircraft's engines.
- To control fuel distribution.
- To power avionics, lights, and other essential equipment (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To power avionics, lights, and other essential equipment
The aircraft's electrical system is fundamental for powering a vast array of components essential for flight. It supplies electricity to the avionics, cabin lighting, navigation lights, environmental control systems, and many other critical pieces of equipment. This robust system ensures that all necessary electrical functions are operational throughout the flight.
Question 79: A castellated nut has been torqued to the minimum specified value, but the cotter pin hole does not align with any of the slots. According to standard maintenance practices, what is the correct procedure?
- Tighten the nut slightly to align with the next available slot, without exceeding the maximum torque value. (Correct answer)
- Replace the washer with a thinner one and re-torque.
- Loosen the nut to the previous slot to align the hole.
- Drill a new cotter pin hole in the bolt.
Correct answer: Tighten the nut slightly to align with the next available slot, without exceeding the maximum torque value.
Standard practice dictates that after reaching the minimum torque value, you may tighten the nut further to align the cotter pin hole with the next slot, as long as the maximum specified torque is not exceeded. Loosening the nut would result in it being under-torqued.
Question 80: What is the purpose of a fuel jettison (fuel dump) system on large transport aircraft?
- To remove contaminated fuel from tanks before landing
- To rapidly reduce aircraft weight to maximum landing weight in an emergency (Correct answer)
- To balance fuel load between wings during asymmetric flight
- To transfer fuel to a reserve tank in case of engine failure
Correct answer: To rapidly reduce aircraft weight to maximum landing weight in an emergency
Fuel jettison systems allow aircraft to rapidly dump fuel overboard to reduce gross weight to the maximum allowable landing weight when an emergency landing is required shortly after takeoff.
Question 81: An AME is tasked with replacing a component in the aircraft's high-pressure pneumatic system. Before loosening any fittings on the component, what is the most critical safety step that must be performed?
- Confirm that the specific pneumatic system has been fully depressurized by checking the pressure gauge. (Correct answer)
- Verify the component's part number matches the maintenance manual.
- Ensure the aircraft's electrical and hydraulic systems are depowered.
- Don appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE).
Correct answer: Confirm that the specific pneumatic system has been fully depressurized by checking the pressure gauge.
High-pressure pneumatic systems store a tremendous amount of energy. Attempting to disconnect a fitting before fully bleeding off the pressure can result in an explosive release of gas, turning components into dangerous projectiles. Verifying a zero-pressure reading on the system gauge is the most critical safety action to prevent serious injury.
Question 82: During a differential compression test, air is heard escaping from the exhaust stack. What is the likely cause?
- Cracked spark plug insulator
- Leaking exhaust valve (Correct answer)
- Leaking intake valve
- Leaking piston rings
Correct answer: Leaking exhaust valve
Air exiting the exhaust indicates the exhaust valve is not sealing.
Question 83: What role does an aircraft maintenance log play in inspection?
- To monitor aircraft speed.
- To calculate the aircraft's fuel efficiency.
- To identify passenger preferences.
- To track the history of maintenance and repairs (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To track the history of maintenance and repairs
An aircraft maintenance log plays a crucial role in inspection by providing a comprehensive historical record of all maintenance and repairs performed on the aircraft. This log allows technicians to track component lifespans, identify recurring issues, and ensure that all scheduled maintenance has been completed. It is an essential document for regulatory compliance and ensuring the aircraft's ongoing airworthiness.
Question 84: Under 14 CFR 145.219, how long must a repair station keep records of work it performed?
- At least 5 years from the date the work order was opened
- At least 1 year from the date the work was completed
- At least 2 years from the date the article was approved for return to service (Correct answer)
- For the life of the article
Correct answer: At least 2 years from the date the article was approved for return to service
14 CFR 145.219(c) requires repair station records to be kept for at least 2 years after the article is approved for return to service.
Question 85: Under 14 CFR 21.181, a standard airworthiness certificate stays in effect as long as:
- The aircraft passes a yearly FAA ramp check
- The original manufacturer remains in business
- Maintenance and alterations follow Parts 43 and 91 and the aircraft remains US-registered (Correct answer)
- The owner renews it every 24 calendar months
Correct answer: Maintenance and alterations follow Parts 43 and 91 and the aircraft remains US-registered
A standard airworthiness certificate remains valid while maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations follow Parts 43 and 91 and the aircraft stays registered in the United States.
Question 86: Why is regular inspection of aircraft structures important?
- To identify and prevent potential safety issues (Correct answer)
- To monitor the aircraft's fuel usage.
- To monitor engine performance.
- To reduce the number of passengers.
Correct answer: To identify and prevent potential safety issues
Regular inspection of aircraft structures is critically important to identify and prevent potential safety issues before they escalate. Inspections allow technicians to detect fatigue, corrosion, cracks, or other forms of damage that could compromise the aircraft's structural integrity. Early detection through routine checks is key to maintaining airworthiness and preventing catastrophic failures.
Question 87: Which of the following digital data bus standards is characterized by a unidirectional, twisted-pair wire connection that transmits 32-bit words at either a low speed (12.5 kbps) or a high speed (100 kbps)?
- ARINC 429 (Correct answer)
- MIL-STD-1553
- CAN bus
- ARINC 664 (AFDX)
Correct answer: ARINC 429
ARINC 429 is the predominant avionics data bus for commercial and transport aircraft. Its key characteristics include using a unidirectional (one transmitter, up to 20 receivers), twisted-pair wire, and transmitting 32-bit data words at either a low speed (12.5-14.5 kbps) or high speed (100 kbps).
Question 88: What is the purpose of the aircraft's wing structure?
- To generate lift and support the aircraft's weight (Correct answer)
- To control the aircraft's altitude.
- To control the aircraft's speed.
- To manage engine performance.
Correct answer: To generate lift and support the aircraft's weight
The primary purpose of the aircraft's wing structure is to generate lift, which counteracts gravity and allows the aircraft to fly. The shape of the wings, known as an airfoil, creates a pressure differential that produces upward force. Additionally, wings are designed to support the aircraft's weight, including engines and fuel, and house various systems.
Question 89: In accordance with 14 CFR Part 25, if a fuse is essential for safety in flight and is accessible to the flight crew, what is the minimum number of spare fuses that must be carried on board?
- A quantity sufficient to replace all essential fuses once.
- One spare for each essential fuse.
- At least 50% of the number of fuses of each required rating. (Correct answer)
- At least 25% of the number of fuses of each required rating.
Correct answer: At least 50% of the number of fuses of each required rating.
14 CFR § 25.1357(d) states: "Where fuses are used, there must be spare fuses for use in flight equal to at least 50% of the number of fuses of each rating required for complete circuit protection." This regulation ensures that sufficient spares are available for critical systems.
Question 90: What is the role of the aviation safety management system (SMS)?
- To provide a structured approach to identifying and managing aviation safety risks (Correct answer)
- To monitor aircraft fuel consumption.
- To assess flight crew performance.
- To track passenger complaints.
Correct answer: To provide a structured approach to identifying and managing aviation safety risks
The aviation safety management system (SMS) is crucial because it provides a structured and systematic approach to identifying, assessing, and managing aviation safety risks. SMS moves beyond reactive incident investigation to proactively identify hazards and implement preventative measures. This comprehensive framework helps organizations continuously improve their safety performance and reduce the likelihood of accidents.
Question 91: A 1,000 psi hydraulic pressure acts on a piston with a 2-square-inch area. What force does the piston produce?
- 500 pounds
- 2,000 pounds (Correct answer)
- 4,000 pounds
- 1,000 pounds
Correct answer: 2,000 pounds
Force equals pressure times area, so 1,000 psi x 2 sq in = 2,000 lb.
Question 92: During a shift handover, an AME verbally tells the incoming AME that the torque checks on the main landing gear are 'all done.' However, they fail to mention that one bolt could not be accessed and was not torqued. This omission is a critical failure of which human factor from the 'Dirty Dozen'?
- Lack of Communication (Correct answer)
- Lack of Teamwork
- Norms
- Lack of Assertiveness
Correct answer: Lack of Communication
This scenario is a classic example of a 'Lack of Communication.' The outgoing AME failed to convey complete and critical information to the incoming shift, creating a high-risk situation. Effective shift handovers require the clear and thorough exchange of all task-relevant information.
Question 93: What is the purpose of a shimmy damper on a nose landing gear?
- Provide nosewheel steering input from the rudder pedals
- Prevent rapid oscillation of the nosewheel during ground roll (Correct answer)
- Lock the nosewheel in the centered position for retraction
- Absorb vertical landing loads
Correct answer: Prevent rapid oscillation of the nosewheel during ground roll
A shimmy damper resists rapid side-to-side oscillation of the nosewheel at speed.
Question 94: What is the role of the aircraft's environmental control system?
- To control engine temperature.
- To provide oxygen to passengers in case of an emergency.
- To regulate temperature, pressure, and air quality in the cabin (Correct answer)
- To monitor fuel efficiency.
Correct answer: To regulate temperature, pressure, and air quality in the cabin
The aircraft's environmental control system (ECS) is designed to maintain a safe and comfortable cabin environment for passengers and crew. It actively regulates the cabin's temperature, pressure, and air quality, especially at high altitudes where outside conditions are extreme. This system is essential for preventing hypoxia and ensuring passenger well-being throughout the flight.
Question 95: What is the function of the aircraft's avionics system?
- To monitor and control the aircraft's electronics, navigation, and communication systems (Correct answer)
- To regulate cabin pressure.
- To manage the fuel system.
- To control the aircraft's speed.
Correct answer: To monitor and control the aircraft's electronics, navigation, and communication systems
The aircraft's avionics system encompasses all the electronic systems used for flight control, navigation, communication, and monitoring. It acts as the aircraft's central nervous system, processing vast amounts of data to assist the pilot and automate various functions. This system is indispensable for modern flight operations, ensuring safe and efficient travel.
Question 96: A technician is performing a sheet metal repair on a non-pressurized fuselage section. The maintenance manual specifies installing a doubler over the damaged area. What is the standard practice for the material thickness of this doubler?
- The same thickness as the original skin.
- One gauge thicker than the original skin. (Correct answer)
- Two gauges thinner than the original skin.
- Half the thickness of the original skin.
Correct answer: One gauge thicker than the original skin.
For a standard doubler repair, the doubler should be made of the same material as the original skin but should be one gauge (or size) thicker to ensure the repair restores the required strength to the damaged area.
Question 97: After a major repair, how soon must a copy of FAA Form 337 be forwarded to the FAA?
- Within 24 hours
- Within 7 days
- Within 30 days
- Within 48 hours (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Within 48 hours
Part 43 Appendix B requires a duplicate Form 337 to be sent to the FAA within 48 hours after the aircraft is approved for return to service.
Question 98: Which of the following is the BEST example of an 'error-trapping' technique in aircraft maintenance?
- Using a detailed checklist for a complex task.
- Taking a short break when feeling fatigued.
- An independent inspection performed by a second qualified AME. (Correct answer)
- Attending a human factors refresher course annually.
Correct answer: An independent inspection performed by a second qualified AME.
Error-trapping involves implementing a specific check or process designed to catch an error before it has consequences. An independent inspection is a classic example, as its sole purpose is to verify the work of the first AME and 'trap' any potential errors. While checklists and managing fatigue are important for error prevention, the independent check is a direct trapping mechanism.
Question 99: A pilot reports an intermittent 'red X' over the airspeed tape on their Primary Flight Display (PFD). From a maintenance perspective, which system is the most likely source of this failure?
- The display unit's internal symbol generator
- The Flight Management System (FMS)
- The Air Data Computer (ADC) (Correct answer)
- The Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS)
Correct answer: The Air Data Computer (ADC)
A 'red X' over a specific parameter like airspeed on an EFIS display indicates that the data is invalid or not being received. The Air Data Computer (ADC) is responsible for calculating airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed from pitot and static pressure inputs. A failure or data corruption from the ADC would cause the PFD to flag the related parameters as invalid.
Question 100: What is the primary purpose of stop-drilling a crack in aluminum skin?
- To allow the crack to be filled with sealant
- To relieve the stress concentration at the crack tip (Correct answer)
- To provide a rivet hole for the patch
- To drain trapped moisture
Correct answer: To relieve the stress concentration at the crack tip
A round hole at the crack end spreads the stress and stops propagation.
Aircraft Maintenance Engineer (AME) License Exams
The AME License Exams certify individuals to inspect, maintain, and repair aircraft, ensuring airworthiness and safety.
Exam Rules
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- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy
Sources & references
Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy
- tc.canada.ca — Renewal, test delivery, eligibility, passing score, registration deadline · verified Nov 2026
- examens-aviation-exams.tc.canada.ca — Fees, time limit · verified Nov 2026