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Renal and Endocrine Disorders Flashcards

7 cards from real AMC MCQ practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A 22-year-old man presents with frank haematuria 1-2 days after an upper respiratory tract infection. What is the most likely glomerular diagnosis?

    Answer: IgA nephropathy

    Synpharyngitic haematuria occurring concurrently with a URTI is characteristic of IgA nephropathy.

  2. A 5-year-old presents with periorbital oedema, heavy proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia and a normal complement. What is the most likely cause of nephrotic syndrome in this child?

    Answer: Minimal change disease

    Minimal change disease is the commonest cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and is highly steroid-responsive.

  3. A 50-year-old woman with a thyroid nodule has a suppressed TSH and an increased radioactive iodine uptake confined to the nodule. What is this lesion most likely to be?

    Answer: Toxic adenoma

    An autonomously functioning ('hot') nodule with increased focal uptake and suppressed TSH is a toxic adenoma and is almost always benign.

  4. A type 1 diabetic presents drowsy with a blood glucose of 28 mmol/L, ketonaemia and a pH of 7.18. What is the most important first step in management?

    Answer: Intravenous isotonic fluid resuscitation

    Fluid resuscitation is the priority in diabetic ketoacidosis before and alongside an insulin infusion.

  5. A patient with end-stage renal disease on haemodialysis develops a potassium of 7.2 mmol/L with peaked T waves on ECG. What is the first agent to give for cardiac protection?

    Answer: Intravenous calcium gluconate

    Calcium gluconate stabilises the myocardium immediately, although it does not lower potassium.

  6. A 38-year-old woman has fatigue, hyperpigmentation, hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia and postural hypotension. A short Synacthen test shows an inadequate cortisol rise. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Primary adrenal insufficiency

    Hyperpigmentation with hyperkalaemia and a failed Synacthen test indicates primary adrenal (Addison) disease with high ACTH.

  7. A 70-year-old man with longstanding hypertension has bilateral small kidneys on ultrasound and proteinuria. What is the most likely underlying renal pathology?

    Answer: Hypertensive nephrosclerosis

    Chronic hypertension causes nephrosclerosis with bilaterally shrunken, scarred kidneys.