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Neurology and Mental Health Flashcards

7 cards from real AMC MCQ practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Neurology and Mental Health flashcards as text

  1. A 68-year-old presents with sudden right-sided weakness and expressive aphasia that resolves completely within 45 minutes. CT brain is normal. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

    Answer: Commence aspirin and arrange urgent specialist assessment

    A resolving focal deficit is a transient ischaemic attack, requiring antiplatelet therapy and urgent assessment to prevent stroke.

  2. A 24-year-old woman reports recurrent episodes of intense fear, palpitations, sweating and a sense of impending doom lasting about 10 minutes, with no medical cause found. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Panic disorder

    Recurrent discrete episodes of intense fear peaking within minutes, with no organic cause, characterise panic disorder.

  3. A patient with Parkinson's disease develops worsening tremor and rigidity after being started on a new medication for nausea. Which drug is the most likely cause?

    Answer: Metoclopramide

    Metoclopramide is a central dopamine antagonist that crosses the blood-brain barrier and worsens parkinsonism.

  4. A 30-year-old man with schizophrenia on haloperidol develops fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic instability and a markedly raised creatine kinase. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

    Fever, rigidity, autonomic instability and raised CK in a patient on antipsychotics indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

  5. A 55-year-old presents with the 'worst headache of my life' that began suddenly. CT brain is normal at 12 hours. What is the next most appropriate investigation?

    Answer: Lumbar puncture looking for xanthochromia

    A thunderclap headache with a normal CT requires lumbar puncture to detect xanthochromia from subarachnoid haemorrhage.

  6. A 40-year-old woman reports two weeks of persistent low mood, anhedonia, early morning waking, poor appetite and thoughts that life is not worth living. What is the most appropriate first action?

    Answer: Assess suicide risk in detail

    Any disclosure of thoughts that life is not worth living mandates a detailed suicide risk assessment.

  7. A 70-year-old man has a resting tremor, bradykinesia and cogwheel rigidity that began on one side. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Idiopathic Parkinson's disease

    Asymmetric resting tremor with bradykinesia and rigidity is the classic triad of idiopathic Parkinson's disease.