Associate Constructor (AC) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: When learning new installation techniques & methods in American Institute of Constructors, which approach is MOST effective?

Observing others without ever performing the techniques
Practicing without understanding underlying principles
Combining theoretical study with supervised practical application (Correct answer)
Learning theory only without hands-on practice

Correct answer: Combining theoretical study with supervised practical application

The combination of theoretical knowledge and supervised practical application provides the deepest understanding and develops competent practitioners.

Question 2: Why does the AIC require members to support and advance the construction profession as part of their ethical obligations?

To create mentoring pipelines that ensure future AIC exam candidates
Because regulatory bodies require trade associations to demonstrate active membership engagement
Because profession-wide integrity and public trust directly affect every member's ability to practice effectively (Correct answer)
To increase AIC membership revenue and organizational strength

Correct answer: Because profession-wide integrity and public trust directly affect every member's ability to practice effectively

The public trust and integrity of the entire construction profession affect every practitioner; members advancing the profession's standards protect the environment in which all constructors operate.

Question 3: Which principle underlies the concept of 'responsible bidding' in construction ethics?

Always submitting the lowest possible bid to win work
Submitting multiple bids under different company names
Bidding only on projects for which the constructor is qualified and can perform competently (Correct answer)
Partnering with other firms to coordinate bid prices

Correct answer: Bidding only on projects for which the constructor is qualified and can perform competently

Responsible bidding requires that constructors only compete for work they have the qualifications, capacity, and resources to perform successfully.

Question 4: The Facility Condition Index (FCI) is calculated as:

Annual maintenance budget / building square footage
Deferred maintenance cost / current replacement value (Correct answer)
Work orders completed / work orders opened
Energy cost / occupancy

Correct answer: Deferred maintenance cost / current replacement value

FCI is the ratio of deferred maintenance and repair needs to the facility's current replacement value, and higher values mean worse condition.

Question 5: Under AIA A201, the architect may order which kind of change without the owner's or contractor's agreement?

A minor change consistent with the intent of the contract documents and with no change in sum or time (Correct answer)
A change that adds cost but not time
Any change below $10,000
A change to the contract completion date

Correct answer: A minor change consistent with the intent of the contract documents and with no change in sum or time

A201 §7.4 authorizes the architect to order minor changes that do not affect the Contract Sum or Time.

Question 6: OSHA defines a 'competent person' as someone who can identify existing and predictable hazards and also has what?

At least 10 years of field experience
An OSHA 500 trainer card
A college degree in safety
Authority to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Authority to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them

A competent person must both recognize hazards and have the authority to take prompt corrective action.

Question 7: Which factor has the greatest impact on fluctuating construction material costs?

Market conditions (Correct answer)
Project location signage
Supervisor experience
Weather conditions

Correct answer: Market conditions

Market conditions, including supply and demand, economic trends, and global events, have the greatest impact on fluctuating construction material costs. Factors like raw material availability, transportation costs, trade policies, and overall economic health directly influence pricing. These external forces can cause significant and rapid changes in material expenses, impacting project budgets.

Question 8: Head protection used on construction sites must meet which consensus standard as referenced by OSHA?

ANSI A10.32
ANSI Z87.1
ANSI Z89.1 (Correct answer)
ANSI Z41

Correct answer: ANSI Z89.1

1926.100 references ANSI Z89.1 for protective helmets.

Question 9: A unit-price contract is most appropriate when:

The design is 100% complete and quantities are certain
The owner wants a guaranteed maximum price
Quantities of work, such as excavation or rock removal, can't be accurately determined at bid time (Correct answer)
The project is a small interior renovation

Correct answer: Quantities of work, such as excavation or rock removal, can't be accurately determined at bid time

Unit-price contracts pay for actual measured quantities, which suits work with uncertain quantities.

Question 10: What does a laboratory Proctor test (ASTM D698 or D1557) determine for a soil?

Permeability of the soil
Shear strength under saturated conditions
Bearing capacity of footings
Maximum dry density and optimum moisture content (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Maximum dry density and optimum moisture content

The Proctor test establishes the compaction curve used to set field density acceptance criteria.

Question 11: Under OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard aligned with GHS, how many sections must a Safety Data Sheet contain?

16 (Correct answer)
20
8
12

Correct answer: 16

GHS-format Safety Data Sheets follow a standardized 16-section layout.

Question 12: Under OSHA crane rules, how often must a competent person visually inspect wire rope in active use?

Annually
Monthly
Each shift (Correct answer)
Weekly

Correct answer: Each shift

OSHA 1926.1413 requires a visual inspection of wire rope by a competent person every shift.

Question 13: Absent a qualified-person design, anchorages for personal fall arrest systems must support at least how much per employee attached?

1,800 pounds
10,000 pounds
5,000 pounds (Correct answer)
3,000 pounds

Correct answer: 5,000 pounds

OSHA requires fall arrest anchorages to support 5,000 pounds per employee or be designed with a safety factor of two.

Question 14: When addressing difficult situations through client communication & service in American Institute of Constructors, what strategy is BEST?

Minimizing the significance of the issue
Avoiding the conversation until the situation resolves itself
Responding defensively to protect professional reputation
Acknowledging concerns, providing clear information, and offering solutions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Acknowledging concerns, providing clear information, and offering solutions

Acknowledging concerns validates the other party experience, clear information builds trust, and offering solutions demonstrates commitment to resolution.

Question 15: A construction company's Experience Modification Rate (EMR) is used to:

Evaluate a project manager's performance
Determine the overtime rate for union workers
Calculate the profit margin on completed projects
Measure the company's safety record relative to the industry average for workers' compensation insurance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Measure the company's safety record relative to the industry average for workers' compensation insurance

The EMR compares a contractor's actual workers' compensation claims to the expected industry average; an EMR below 1.0 indicates a better-than-average safety record.

Question 16: Under AIA A201, how long is the standard correction period for work found not in accordance with the contract documents?

Five years after final completion
90 days after final payment
Two years after notice to proceed
One year after substantial completion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: One year after substantial completion

A201 sets a one-year correction period starting at substantial completion, separate from statutory warranty limits.

Question 17: Under OSHA Subpart CC, what minimum clearance must a crane maintain from power lines rated up to 350 kV when using the simplified approach?

50 feet
10 feet
20 feet (Correct answer)
15 feet

Correct answer: 20 feet

1926.1408 Option 2 requires a 20-foot minimum clearance for lines up to 350 kV.

Question 18: Which of the following is a key input when developing a project master schedule?

Final punch list
Subcontractor warranty documents
Scope of work and contract milestones (Correct answer)
Certificate of occupancy

Correct answer: Scope of work and contract milestones

The scope of work and contract milestones define what must be accomplished and by when, forming the backbone of any master schedule.

Question 19: A constructor realizes mid-project that the cost will significantly exceed the original estimate. The ethical course of action is to:

Reduce material quality to stay within budget without informing the owner
Absorb the overrun to preserve client goodwill without disclosure
Notify the client immediately with updated cost projections and cause analysis (Correct answer)
Complete the project and bill the overage as change orders after completion

Correct answer: Notify the client immediately with updated cost projections and cause analysis

Transparency and timely disclosure of cost overruns is an ethical obligation; clients must be informed promptly so they can make informed decisions.

Question 20: Under OSHA 1926.652, at what trench depth is a protective system required (unless the trench is entirely in stable rock)?

3 feet
4 feet
5 feet (Correct answer)
8 feet

Correct answer: 5 feet

Trenches 5 feet or deeper need sloping, shoring, or shielding unless they are in stable rock.

Question 21: An owner orders changes so extensive that the project is fundamentally different from what was bargained for. What is this called?

Deductive change
Constructive change
Minor change
Cardinal change (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cardinal change

A cardinal change goes beyond the scope of the original contract and can be treated as a breach.

Question 22: In American Institute of Constructors, which factor MOST influences the selection of appropriate maintenance & repair procedures?

Cost as the sole determining factor
Personal preference of the practitioner
The specific requirements and constraints of the situation (Correct answer)
The most recently developed technique only

Correct answer: The specific requirements and constraints of the situation

The specific requirements and constraints of each situation should drive technique selection to ensure the most effective and appropriate approach.

Question 23: A construction project's Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is 0.85. This means the project is:

15% over budget
Ahead of schedule by 15%
Progressing at 85% of the planned rate (Correct answer)
Completing only 85 cents of planned work for every dollar of budget spent

Correct answer: Progressing at 85% of the planned rate

SPI = EV/PV; an SPI of 0.85 means the project is accomplishing only 85% of the planned work progress rate.

Question 24: Craft labor productivity in construction is BEST measured by:

The number of workers on site each day
Actual units of work installed per labor-hour compared to the estimate (Correct answer)
The number of overtime hours worked
Total wages paid compared to the project budget

Correct answer: Actual units of work installed per labor-hour compared to the estimate

Productivity is measured by comparing actual labor-hours per unit of work installed to the estimated standard, revealing efficiency gains or losses.

Question 25: In CPM scheduling, 'float' (or slack) refers to:

The overlap between two concurrent tasks
The total project contingency budget
The buffer added to each activity duration estimate
The amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting the project finish date (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting the project finish date

Float is the amount of time a non-critical activity can be delayed without delaying the overall project completion.

Question 26: What does the AIC's concept of 'stewardship' in professional practice primarily refer to?

Responsible use of resources, including financial, human, and environmental resources (Correct answer)
Managing the owner's budget with strict cost controls
Maintaining accurate project documentation for audit purposes
Delegating tasks appropriately to qualified subcontractors

Correct answer: Responsible use of resources, including financial, human, and environmental resources

Stewardship in AIC professional practice encompasses responsible management of all resources — financial, human, material, and environmental — entrusted to the constructor.

Question 27: A contractor buys insurance and requires bonds from subcontractors to deal with a project risk. Which risk response strategy is this?

Mitigation
Acceptance
Transfer (Correct answer)
Avoidance

Correct answer: Transfer

Insurance and bonds shift the financial consequences of a risk to a third party, which is risk transfer.

Question 28: Which competency is MOST essential for professionals working in building codes & standards in American Institute of Constructors?

Seniority-based decision making
Memorization of procedures without understanding principles
Critical thinking combined with practical application of knowledge (Correct answer)
Speed of task completion above all else

Correct answer: Critical thinking combined with practical application of knowledge

Critical thinking allows professionals to apply knowledge effectively in varied situations, leading to better outcomes than rote procedures.

Question 29: Under ASCE 7, what is the typical minimum uniformly distributed live load for office floors?

100 psf
40 psf
80 psf
50 psf (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 50 psf

ASCE 7 specifies 50 psf for office floors, with 80 psf for corridors above the first floor.

Question 30: What is the ethical obligation of a constructor who discovers that a competitor obtained a contract through bribery of a public official?

Use the information to renegotiate their own contract terms
Inform only the project owner and take no further action
Report the misconduct to the appropriate authorities (Correct answer)
Ignore it to avoid involvement in a competitor's affairs

Correct answer: Report the misconduct to the appropriate authorities

Ethical professional practice requires constructors to report known illegal conduct, including bribery, to the appropriate authorities.

Question 31: Stacking trades too densely in one work area usually causes:

Higher labor productivity
Shorter activity durations
Lower material costs
Lower labor productivity because of congestion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Lower labor productivity because of congestion

Trade stacking creates congestion and interference, which lowers labor productivity.

Question 32: A public owner terminates a contract for convenience. What can the contractor typically recover?

Anticipated profit on the entire contract
Nothing beyond retainage
Liquidated damages from the owner
Cost of work performed plus reasonable overhead and profit on that work (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cost of work performed plus reasonable overhead and profit on that work

A termination-for-convenience recovery covers work performed and wind-down costs, not lost profit on unperformed work.

Question 33: When does OSHA require a qualified signal person for crane operations?

Only for tower cranes
Only for lifts over 10 tons
When the operator's view of the load or travel path is obstructed (Correct answer)
Only at night

Correct answer: When the operator's view of the load or travel path is obstructed

A qualified signal person is needed when the operator cannot clearly see the load point or the travel path.

Question 34: Under the GHS-aligned Hazard Communication Standard, how many sections must a Safety Data Sheet contain?

16 (Correct answer)
8
20
12

Correct answer: 16

29 CFR 1910.1200(g) requires SDSs in a uniform 16-section format.

Question 35: Under OSHA Subpart L, fall protection is required for employees on a scaffold more than how many feet above a lower level?

15 feet
4 feet
6 feet
10 feet (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 10 feet

Scaffold users require fall protection when working more than 10 feet above a lower level.

Question 36: Atmospheric testing for oxygen deficiency or hazardous atmospheres is required before entry into excavations deeper than:

5 feet
4 feet (Correct answer)
3 feet
10 feet

Correct answer: 4 feet

1926.651(g)(1) requires atmospheric testing where hazardous atmospheres could reasonably exist in excavations over 4 feet deep.

Question 37: When a portable ladder is used to access an upper landing, how far must the side rails extend above the landing surface?

1 foot
3 feet (Correct answer)
2 feet
4 feet

Correct answer: 3 feet

1926.1053(b)(1) requires side rails to extend at least 3 feet above the upper landing surface.

Question 38: Which international standard specifies requirements for a quality management system that construction firms may be certified to?

ISO 9001 (Correct answer)
ISO 45001
ISO 31000
ISO 14001

Correct answer: ISO 9001

ISO 9001 is the quality management system standard; 14001 is environmental and 45001 is safety.

Question 39: Which ASTM standard governs the slump test used to measure the consistency of fresh concrete?

ASTM C31
ASTM C143 (Correct answer)
ASTM C39
ASTM C231

Correct answer: ASTM C143

ASTM C143 is the standard test method for slump of hydraulic-cement concrete.

Question 40: A crack in a slab-on-grade keeps opening and closing with temperature changes. What is the best repair approach?

Rout and seal with a flexible elastomeric sealant (Correct answer)
Fill with non-shrink grout
Rigid epoxy injection
Overlay with a thin bonded topping

Correct answer: Rout and seal with a flexible elastomeric sealant

Active cracks need a flexible sealant that can take the movement, because rigid fillers will re-crack.

Question 41: What is the MOST effective way to stay current with developments in building codes & standards for American Institute of Constructors?

Relying on experience gained early in career
Participating in professional development, industry events, and peer collaboration (Correct answer)
Following a single expert opinions
Reading only internal communications

Correct answer: Participating in professional development, industry events, and peer collaboration

A multi-faceted approach including formal development, industry events, and peer collaboration provides the broadest perspective on current developments.

Question 42: In the context of construction professional ethics, 'whistleblowing' is considered justified when:

Internal reporting has failed to correct illegal or seriously unethical conduct that threatens public safety (Correct answer)
A competitor consistently underbids your firm on public projects
A subcontractor is performing slower than their schedule commitments
A client refuses to approve a legitimate change order request

Correct answer: Internal reporting has failed to correct illegal or seriously unethical conduct that threatens public safety

External whistleblowing is ethically justified when internal reporting mechanisms have failed to address illegal or seriously unethical conduct that poses a threat to public safety.

Question 43: Under AIC ethical standards, which statement best describes a constructor's obligation regarding their own professional limitations?

Constructors may accept complex projects and disclose limitations only if asked
Constructors must be honest about their limitations and decline work beyond their competence (Correct answer)
Constructors may rely on subcontractors to cover any gaps without disclosure to the owner
Constructors should accept all work and hire specialists to fill gaps

Correct answer: Constructors must be honest about their limitations and decline work beyond their competence

Ethical practice requires honest self-assessment and declining work that exceeds a constructor's competence, rather than accepting it and relying on others to compensate.

Question 44: An RFI response from the architect adds work beyond the contract scope. What should the contractor do?

Perform the work at no cost
Give timely notice that the response constitutes a change and request a change order (Correct answer)
File a lawsuit immediately
Ignore the RFI response

Correct answer: Give timely notice that the response constitutes a change and request a change order

Timely notice preserves the right to an adjustment when an RFI response changes scope.

Question 45: Which metric BEST indicates successful materials & resource management in American Institute of Constructors?

Achievement of defined key performance indicators and stakeholder satisfaction (Correct answer)
Volume of emails sent
Hours worked by team members
Number of meetings held per week

Correct answer: Achievement of defined key performance indicators and stakeholder satisfaction

KPI achievement and stakeholder satisfaction directly measure whether management activities are producing desired outcomes.

Question 46: When crashing a schedule, which activity should normally be shortened first?

Any activity with a Start-to-Start link
The critical activity with the longest duration
The non-critical activity with the most float
The critical activity with the lowest cost slope (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The critical activity with the lowest cost slope

The most economical approach crashes the critical activity with the lowest cost per day saved first.

Question 47: An AIC member serves on a local code committee and is asked to vote on a code change that would directly benefit a product line their company sells. The appropriate ethical action is to:

Vote in favor since their expertise qualifies them to judge the technical merits
Resign from the committee before the vote occurs
Abstain from the vote and disclose the conflict of interest to the committee (Correct answer)
Vote against the change to avoid any appearance of self-interest

Correct answer: Abstain from the vote and disclose the conflict of interest to the committee

Disclosing the conflict and abstaining from the vote is the standard ethical protocol when a personal financial interest intersects with a public decision-making role.

Question 48: Which statement about shop drawings under AIA A201 is correct?

Only the owner can approve them
They are not contract documents (Correct answer)
They become contract documents once approved
They override the specifications when they conflict

Correct answer: They are not contract documents

A201 §3.12.4 says shop drawings, product data, and samples are not Contract Documents; they show how the contractor intends to meet the design.

Question 49: In post-tensioned concrete, when are the tendons typically stressed?

After the concrete reaches a specified minimum strength (Correct answer)
Only after 28 days of curing
Immediately as concrete is placed
Before the concrete is placed

Correct answer: After the concrete reaches a specified minimum strength

Tendons are stressed once the concrete reaches the specified strength, often around 3,000 psi, verified by test cylinders.

Question 50: Which project delivery method allows a construction manager to provide preconstruction planning services and then hold trade contracts with a guaranteed maximum price?

Construction Manager at Risk (Correct answer)
Agency CM only
Design-bid-build
Multiple prime contracting

Correct answer: Construction Manager at Risk

CM at Risk provides preconstruction input and then assumes delivery risk under a GMP.

Question 51: Under ACI 318, concrete strength is acceptable when the average of any three consecutive tests equals or exceeds f'c and no individual test (for f'c of 5,000 psi or less) falls below f'c by more than how much?

1,000 psi
250 psi
10% of f'c
500 psi (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 500 psi

ACI 318 accepts strength when no single test is more than 500 psi below f'c for f'c of 5,000 psi or less.

Question 52: A three-week look-ahead schedule is primarily used by the field team to:

Plan short-term work, crews, and constraints in detail (Correct answer)
Calculate liquidated damages
Document final as-built conditions
Replace the contract baseline schedule

Correct answer: Plan short-term work, crews, and constraints in detail

Look-ahead schedules break near-term work into detail so superintendents can coordinate crews, materials, and constraints.

Question 53: A QC manager wants to identify which few defect types cause the majority of rework on a project. Which tool is most appropriate?

Gantt chart
Pareto chart (Correct answer)
Network diagram
Scatter diagram

Correct answer: Pareto chart

A Pareto chart ranks causes by frequency to highlight the vital few (80/20 rule).

Question 54: Which practice best protects moisture-sensitive materials such as gypsum board stored on site?

Store them directly on the ground under a tarp
Store them off the ground in an enclosed, dry area (Correct answer)
Store them outdoors in original packaging
Stack them against exterior walls before dry-in

Correct answer: Store them off the ground in an enclosed, dry area

Keeping materials raised and enclosed prevents moisture damage, mold, and warping.

Question 55: Delays caused by the owner and by the contractor overlap on the critical path. What is the most common result?

The contractor gets a time extension but no delay damages (Correct answer)
The contract is automatically terminated
The owner assesses full liquidated damages
The contractor gets time and money

Correct answer: The contractor gets a time extension but no delay damages

For concurrent delay, courts usually grant time but deny compensation, because neither party can recover for the overlap.

Question 56: A scheduler shortens the project by adding a second crew to critical activities at extra cost. This technique is called:

Float sequestering
Crashing (Correct answer)
Fast-tracking
Resource leveling

Correct answer: Crashing

Crashing compresses the schedule by adding resources to critical activities, typically increasing direct cost.

Question 57: What is a lien waiver used for in contract administration?

To file RFIs
To track jobsite safety
To issue change orders
To confirm payment and waive future claims (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To confirm payment and waive future claims

A lien waiver is a crucial document in construction contract administration used to confirm that a party, such as a subcontractor or supplier, has received payment for their work or materials. By signing it, they legally waive their right to file a mechanics lien against the property for that specific payment amount. This protects the property owner and general contractor from future claims and ensures clear title.

Question 58: Which federal law prohibits employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin in construction?

Davis-Bacon Act
National Labor Relations Act
Fair Labor Standards Act
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act prohibits employers from discriminating in hiring, firing, or any term of employment based on protected characteristics.

Question 59: A continuous footing is 2 ft wide, 1 ft deep, and 150 LF long. What is its concrete volume?

11.1 CY (Correct answer)
22.2 CY
5.6 CY
33.3 CY

Correct answer: 11.1 CY

2 x 1 x 150 = 300 CF, and 300 / 27 = 11.1 CY.

Question 60: Which factor BEST indicates mastery of building codes & standards in American Institute of Constructors?

Years of experience in a single setting
The ability to adapt knowledge and skills to varying contexts while maintaining standards (Correct answer)
Number of certifications held
Speed of task completion

Correct answer: The ability to adapt knowledge and skills to varying contexts while maintaining standards

True mastery is demonstrated by the ability to apply knowledge flexibly across different contexts while consistently maintaining quality standards.

Question 61: Under the IBC, a college classroom building is generally classified as which occupancy group?

Group B (Correct answer)
Group E
Group A-3
Group I-4

Correct answer: Group B

Group E covers education through the 12th grade; education above 12th grade is classified as Group B.

Question 62: A hidden defect that a reasonable inspection at turnover could not have found is called a:

Change directive
Punch-list item
Latent defect (Correct answer)
Patent defect

Correct answer: Latent defect

Latent defects are concealed defects, and they are often subject to longer statutes of limitation or repose.

Question 63: A second-tier supplier with no direct contract with the prime contractor wants to claim on a Miller Act payment bond. What notice must it give?

Notice to the contracting officer within 30 days
Notice to the surety within one year of contract award
No notice is required
Written notice to the prime contractor within 90 days of last furnishing labor or material (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Written notice to the prime contractor within 90 days of last furnishing labor or material

Second-tier claimants must give written notice to the prime contractor within 90 days of the last furnishing.

Question 64: Which surety bond guarantees the owner that the contractor will complete the work according to the contract terms?

License bond
Bid bond
Payment bond
Performance bond (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Performance bond

A performance bond protects the owner if the contractor defaults on completing the contracted work.

Question 65: A soldier pile and lagging system is primarily used for what purpose?

Temporary earth retention for excavations (Correct answer)
Underpinning existing footings by jacking
Permanent deep foundations under columns
Dewatering saturated sands

Correct answer: Temporary earth retention for excavations

Soldier piles with timber or concrete lagging between them hold back soil along excavation walls.

Question 66: Which of the following best describes 'fee splitting' and why it is considered unethical in construction?

Charging different clients different rates for the same service
Paying undisclosed referral fees to secure work, which creates hidden conflicts of interest (Correct answer)
Dividing a contract fee among multiple partners, which reduces transparency
Sharing profit with subcontractors, which undermines competitive bidding

Correct answer: Paying undisclosed referral fees to secure work, which creates hidden conflicts of interest

Undisclosed fee splitting creates hidden conflicts of interest and violates the principle of transparency owed to clients.

Question 67: Under the IBC, a high-rise building is one with an occupied floor located more than how far above the lowest level of fire department vehicle access?

55 feet
75 feet (Correct answer)
120 feet
100 feet

Correct answer: 75 feet

The IBC defines a high-rise as having an occupied floor more than 75 feet above the lowest level of fire department vehicle access.

Question 68: What is the first step in risk management for a construction project?

Collect employee signatures
Hire subcontractors
Provide PPE
Identify potential hazards (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Identify potential hazards

Risk management in construction begins with identifying potential hazards because you cannot mitigate or control risks until you know what they are. This foundational step involves thoroughly assessing the construction site and project plan for any conditions or activities that could lead to harm or loss. Once hazards are identified, subsequent steps like risk assessment, control, and monitoring can be effectively implemented.

Question 69: The principle of 'fairness to competitors' in construction ethics primarily requires that constructors:

Avoid bidding in markets where a competitor has an established presence
Match competitors' bids within 5% to promote market stability
Compete on the basis of merit and refrain from false or misleading statements about competitors (Correct answer)
Share project estimates with competitors to ensure fair pricing

Correct answer: Compete on the basis of merit and refrain from false or misleading statements about competitors

Ethical competition requires relying on one's own qualifications and merits while refraining from disparaging or misrepresenting competitors.

Question 70: According to the AIC Code of Ethics, what is a constructor's primary professional obligation when a conflict arises between client interests and public safety?

Follow whichever course minimizes project delays
Prioritize the client's financial interests
Defer to the project engineer's judgment
Prioritize public safety above client interests (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Prioritize public safety above client interests

The AIC Code of Ethics mandates that constructors place public safety, health, and welfare above all other considerations, including client interests.

Question 71: Rent for a contractor's main corporate office is best classified as which type of cost?

Project overhead (general conditions)
Contingency
Direct cost
General (home office) overhead (Correct answer)

Correct answer: General (home office) overhead

Home office rent supports the whole company rather than one job, so it is general overhead recovered through markup.

Question 72: Purchasing builder's risk insurance to cover potential fire damage during construction is an example of which risk response?

Acceptance
Avoidance
Transfer (Correct answer)
Mitigation

Correct answer: Transfer

Insurance shifts the financial consequence of a risk to a third party, which is risk transfer.

Question 73: In American Institute of Constructors, what is the MOST effective approach to client communication & service?

Using technical terminology exclusively
Providing information without seeking feedback
Communicating only in writing to avoid misunderstandings
Active listening combined with clear, empathetic communication (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Active listening combined with clear, empathetic communication

Active listening combined with clear, empathetic communication builds trust and ensures mutual understanding between all parties.

Question 74: An owner lets non-critical light fixtures operate until they fail, then replaces them. This is best described as:

Predictive maintenance
Proactive maintenance
Reliability-centered maintenance
Run-to-failure (corrective) maintenance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Run-to-failure (corrective) maintenance

Run-to-failure is a deliberate corrective strategy for low-cost, non-critical items where failure has little consequence.

Question 75: Fast-tracking a construction schedule means:

Eliminating quality control checkpoints to save time
Performing activities in parallel that would normally be done sequentially (Correct answer)
Hiring additional subcontractors for all trades
Using faster equipment to complete tasks sooner

Correct answer: Performing activities in parallel that would normally be done sequentially

Fast-tracking overlaps phases or activities that are normally sequential, compressing the schedule without necessarily adding cost.

Question 76: In construction professional practice, 'bid shopping' after award is generally considered unethical because it:

Undermines subcontractor trust and the integrity of the competitive bidding process (Correct answer)
Is prohibited by the AIC certification agreement
Increases project cost by creating additional administrative burden
Violates federal procurement regulations in all jurisdictions

Correct answer: Undermines subcontractor trust and the integrity of the competitive bidding process

Bid shopping after award breaks the implicit trust of the competitive process and discourages subcontractors from submitting their best prices.

Question 77: AIC members are expected to pursue continuing education primarily because:

It generates networking opportunities that lead to new contracts
Ongoing learning maintains the competence necessary to serve clients and the public responsibly (Correct answer)
It is the only way to maintain state contractor licensing
It is required by federal law for all contractors

Correct answer: Ongoing learning maintains the competence necessary to serve clients and the public responsibly

The AIC expects members to pursue continuing education to maintain and expand the competence required to practice responsibly and ethically.

Question 78: During what period must an employer post the OSHA Form 300A annual summary of work-related injuries and illnesses?

All year round
February 1 through April 30 (Correct answer)
March 1 through May 31
January 1 through March 31

Correct answer: February 1 through April 30

The 300A summary must be posted from February 1 to April 30 of the year following the recorded year.

Question 79: The lowest level of a Work Breakdown Structure, where cost and schedule are estimated and controlled, is called a:

Control account
Work package (Correct answer)
Milestone
Summary activity

Correct answer: Work package

Work packages are the lowest WBS deliverable level used to estimate, schedule, and assign responsibility.

Question 80: Within how many days after receipt of the contractor's Application for Payment does the architect issue a Certificate for Payment under A201-2017?

7 days (Correct answer)
30 days
10 days
3 days

Correct answer: 7 days

A201 Section 9.4.1 gives the architect seven days to certify or notify the owner and contractor of reasons for withholding.

Question 81: What is 'crashing' in the context of construction schedule compression?

Overlapping design and construction phases
Removing scope items to save time
Adding resources to critical path activities to shorten their duration (Correct answer)
Allowing the schedule to slip past the deadline

Correct answer: Adding resources to critical path activities to shorten their duration

Schedule crashing involves adding resources (workers, equipment, shifts) to critical path tasks to reduce their durations at added cost.

Question 82: What is the primary purpose of a nonconformance report (NCR)?

To document work or material that does not meet requirements and track its disposition (Correct answer)
To approve a subcontractor's pay application
To notify the owner of weather delays
To request a change in contract price

Correct answer: To document work or material that does not meet requirements and track its disposition

An NCR records the deficiency and its resolution, such as rework, repair, or use-as-is with approval.

Question 83: Resource leveling in project scheduling is used to:

Accelerate the critical path by adding resources
Identify the most expensive resources on a project
Smooth resource demand by shifting non-critical activities within their float (Correct answer)
Remove activities from the project scope to reduce cost

Correct answer: Smooth resource demand by shifting non-critical activities within their float

Resource leveling shifts non-critical activities within available float to smooth peaks and valleys in resource demand.

Question 84: What document should a general contractor require from each subcontractor before allowing their workers on site?

Copies of workers' personal tax returns
Certificates of insurance, safety programs, and worker credentials/certifications (Correct answer)
A guarantee bond equal to the subcontract value
A signed project labor agreement

Correct answer: Certificates of insurance, safety programs, and worker credentials/certifications

GCs must verify subcontractors carry adequate insurance, have documented safety programs, and that workers hold required trade certifications before site access.

Question 85: When a dispute arises between an AIC member and a client, the preferred ethical approach before pursuing litigation is to:

Contact the client's bonding company for direct settlement
Issue a formal notice of claim and cease work pending resolution
Attempt resolution through negotiation, mediation, or other alternative dispute resolution methods (Correct answer)
File a mechanic's lien immediately to protect financial interests

Correct answer: Attempt resolution through negotiation, mediation, or other alternative dispute resolution methods

Ethical professional practice favors resolving disputes through negotiation and alternative dispute resolution before resorting to litigation.

Question 86: What role does documentation play in client communication & service within American Institute of Constructors?

It ensures continuity, accountability, and serves as a reference for all parties (Correct answer)
It replaces the need for verbal communication
It is optional and rarely reviewed
It is only needed for legal protection

Correct answer: It ensures continuity, accountability, and serves as a reference for all parties

Proper documentation ensures continuity of care or service, establishes accountability, and provides a reliable reference for all involved parties.

Question 87: Which of the following is a common cause of decreased craft labor productivity on construction projects?

Thorough pre-task planning
A well-developed look-ahead schedule
Early material deliveries staged at the work face
Frequent scope changes causing rework and crew disruption (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Frequent scope changes causing rework and crew disruption

Frequent scope changes disrupt planned workflows, cause rework, and require crews to stop and restart tasks, significantly reducing labor productivity.

Question 88: What is the purpose of a value engineering proposal communicated to the owner?

To offer alternative methods or materials that maintain function at lower cost (Correct answer)
To reduce quality without notice
To increase contractor fee
To delay the project

Correct answer: To offer alternative methods or materials that maintain function at lower cost

Value engineering seeks to preserve required function while reducing life-cycle or first cost.

Question 89: Which excavator is best suited to digging trenches below the level where the machine sits?

Motor grader
Backhoe (hoe) (Correct answer)
Front shovel
Wheel loader

Correct answer: Backhoe (hoe)

A backhoe pulls its bucket toward the machine, so it digs efficiently below its own track level.

Question 90: Which type of activity relationship specifies that Activity B cannot start until Activity A has been completed?

Finish-to-Start (FS) (Correct answer)
Start-to-Start (SS)
Finish-to-Finish (FF)
Start-to-Finish (SF)

Correct answer: Finish-to-Start (FS)

Finish-to-Start is the most common dependency type, requiring the predecessor activity to finish before the successor can begin.

Question 91: Walls totaling 4,000 SF need two coats of paint, and one gallon covers 400 SF. How many gallons are required, before waste?

10
16
20 (Correct answer)
40

Correct answer: 20

4,000 SF x 2 coats / 400 SF per gallon = 20 gallons.

Question 92: The primary goal of value engineering during estimating is to:

Cut scope regardless of performance
Replace the design team
Get the required functions at the lowest life-cycle cost without sacrificing quality or performance (Correct answer)
Raise the contractor's profit margin

Correct answer: Get the required functions at the lowest life-cycle cost without sacrificing quality or performance

Value engineering analyzes function to reduce total life-cycle cost while maintaining required performance.

Question 93: Which item is typically identified early in planning as a long-lead procurement item?

Common lumber
Switchgear and custom electrical equipment (Correct answer)
Gypsum board
Ready-mix concrete

Correct answer: Switchgear and custom electrical equipment

Switchgear and other custom fabricated equipment often take months to fabricate, so they must be released early.

Question 94: Under AIA A201-2017, within how many days after the event giving rise to a claim must the claimant generally initiate the claim?

7 days
14 days
30 days
21 days (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 21 days

A201-2017 §15.1.3 requires Claims to be initiated within 21 days after the occurrence of the event or after the claimant first recognizes the condition.

Question 95: What action should be taken immediately if a worker is injured on-site?

Ignore the incident.
Call a meeting to discuss project delays.
Provide medical attention and report the incident. (Correct answer)
Document it for the end-of-month report.

Correct answer: Provide medical attention and report the incident.

The immediate priority after a worker is injured on-site is to provide prompt medical attention to the injured individual to ensure their well-being. Following this, the incident must be thoroughly reported according to company policy and regulatory requirements (e.g., OSHA). This ensures proper care, investigation, and measures to prevent recurrence.

Question 96: ACI 306 defines cold weather concreting as a period when the air temperature has fallen to, or is expected to fall below, what value during the protection period?

32°F
50°F
40°F (Correct answer)
25°F

Correct answer: 40°F

ACI 306 uses 40°F as the threshold that triggers cold weather concreting measures.

Question 97: Which ASTM test is used to determine the flame spread index of interior finish materials, such as Class A (0-25)?

ASTM E814
ASTM E84 (Correct answer)
ASTM E119
ASTM E108

Correct answer: ASTM E84

ASTM E84 (the tunnel test) gives flame spread and smoke-developed indices used to classify interior finishes.

Question 98: Under the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA), employees in the construction industry have the right to:

Waive all union rights if requested by the employer
Be terminated for union activity at the employer's discretion
Work only under open-shop conditions
Organize, bargain collectively, and engage in concerted activities (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Organize, bargain collectively, and engage in concerted activities

The NLRA guarantees workers the right to organize, form unions, bargain collectively, and engage in protected concerted activities.

Question 99: On construction sites, 120-volt, single-phase, 15- and 20-amp receptacle outlets that are not part of permanent wiring must be protected by GFCIs or by what alternative?

An assured equipment grounding conductor program (Correct answer)
Arc-flash rated PPE
Double-insulated tools only
Lockout/tagout procedures

Correct answer: An assured equipment grounding conductor program

1926.404(b)(1) allows either GFCIs or an assured equipment grounding conductor program for temporary wiring.

Question 100: When implementing materials & resource management changes in American Institute of Constructors, what factor is MOST critical?

Minimizing communication about the changes
Top-down mandate without input from affected parties
Speed of implementation regardless of preparation
Stakeholder buy-in and a clear change management plan (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Stakeholder buy-in and a clear change management plan

Stakeholder buy-in and a structured change management plan significantly increase the likelihood of successful implementation.

Question 101: Which delivery method lets the contractor take early part in material selection and procurement decisions?

Construction Manager at Risk with preconstruction services (Correct answer)
Design-bid-build
Unit-price contracting after design
Lump-sum competitive bid after design completion

Correct answer: Construction Manager at Risk with preconstruction services

CMAR preconstruction services bring the constructor in early for constructability and early procurement of long-lead items.

Question 102: A subcontractor proposes an alternate product that is not listed in the specifications. What is the proper procedure?

Get verbal approval from the superintendent
Install it if it costs less
Install it and note it on the as-builts
Submit a formal substitution request for the design professional's review (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Submit a formal substitution request for the design professional's review

Substitutions need a formal request and approval from the architect/engineer according to the contract documents.

Question 103: When are operation and maintenance (O&M) manuals normally turned over to the owner on a construction project?

At bid opening
At notice to proceed
During project closeout before final payment (Correct answer)
Only after the warranty period expires

Correct answer: During project closeout before final payment

O&M manuals, warranties, and as-builts are closeout deliverables that are usually required before final payment.

Question 104: When prioritizing a maintenance work order backlog, which item should normally be addressed first?

Repainting a lobby wall
Replacing worn carpet in offices
Upgrading break room fixtures
A failed emergency egress lighting circuit (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A failed emergency egress lighting circuit

Life-safety and code-compliance deficiencies like egress lighting get emergency priority over cosmetic work.

Question 105: Which barrier MOST commonly hinders effective client communication & service in American Institute of Constructors?

Providing too much context for messages
Lack of active listening and assumptions about understanding (Correct answer)
Using too many communication channels
Over-communicating important information

Correct answer: Lack of active listening and assumptions about understanding

Failure to actively listen and making assumptions about understanding are the most common barriers to effective communication.

Question 106: A subcontractor offers a project manager tickets to a major sporting event during contract negotiations. Under ethical guidelines, the project manager should:

Accept the tickets as a routine business courtesy
Decline the gift to avoid any appearance of impropriety (Correct answer)
Accept but disclose the gift to senior management only after award
Accept the tickets if their value is below $100

Correct answer: Decline the gift to avoid any appearance of impropriety

Ethical guidelines require constructors to avoid gifts or gratuities that could influence, or appear to influence, procurement decisions.

Question 107: What is the PRIMARY benefit of documenting tools & equipment operation in American Institute of Constructors?

Protecting against client complaints only
Reducing the workload for future practitioners
Creating a reference for quality assurance, training, and continuous improvement (Correct answer)
Meeting minimum paperwork requirements

Correct answer: Creating a reference for quality assurance, training, and continuous improvement

Documentation serves multiple purposes including quality assurance, training resources, and a foundation for continuous improvement.

Question 108: What is the function of bentonite slurry when excavating a slurry (diaphragm) wall trench?

To hold the trench walls stable by hydrostatic pressure until concrete is tremied in (Correct answer)
To waterproof the finished wall
To lubricate the clamshell bucket
To accelerate concrete set

Correct answer: To hold the trench walls stable by hydrostatic pressure until concrete is tremied in

Slurry pressure and the filter cake it forms support the trench sides until tremie concrete displaces the slurry.

Question 109: What is the main purpose of a Computerized Maintenance Management System (CMMS)?

Tracking work orders, asset histories, and preventive maintenance schedules (Correct answer)
Producing the construction schedule's critical path
Calculating structural loads for repairs
Bidding maintenance subcontracts publicly

Correct answer: Tracking work orders, asset histories, and preventive maintenance schedules

A CMMS holds asset records, creates and tracks work orders, and automates PM scheduling.

Question 110: Which cost is classified as an ownership cost rather than an operating cost for construction equipment?

Operator wages
Depreciation (Correct answer)
Tire wear
Fuel

Correct answer: Depreciation

Depreciation, interest, insurance, and taxes are ownership costs that accrue whether or not the equipment runs.

Question 111: High-lift grouting of masonry walls typically requires which provision?

Grouting each course as it is laid
Omitting vertical reinforcement
Using Type O mortar
Cleanouts at the bottom of grouted cells (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cleanouts at the bottom of grouted cells

Cleanouts let mortar droppings be removed and reinforcement be inspected before tall grout pours.

Question 112: An activity's duration is calculated as 2,400 SF of formwork at a crew productivity of 300 SF per day. What is the duration?

7 days
8 days (Correct answer)
12 days
6 days

Correct answer: 8 days

Duration = quantity / productivity rate = 2,400 / 300 = 8 days.

Question 113: In American Institute of Constructors, what role does employee training play in safety protocols & compliance?

It ensures all personnel can recognize, report, and respond to hazards (Correct answer)
It is optional and only for new employees
It is only needed after an incident occurs
It primarily serves as a legal formality

Correct answer: It ensures all personnel can recognize, report, and respond to hazards

Training empowers all personnel to recognize hazards, follow proper procedures, and respond effectively, making it a cornerstone of any safety program.

Question 114: A loader costs $200,000 with an estimated $20,000 salvage value and a 5-year life. What is the annual straight-line depreciation?

$36,000 (Correct answer)
$40,000
$18,000
$44,000

Correct answer: $36,000

($200,000 − $20,000) ÷ 5 years = $36,000 per year.

Question 115: Why do specifications frequently require a mock-up of a masonry or curtain wall assembly before production work?

To establish an approved standard of quality, appearance, and workmanship for the actual work (Correct answer)
To replace the need for shop drawings
To satisfy OSHA fall protection requirements
To give the owner extra material for future repairs

Correct answer: To establish an approved standard of quality, appearance, and workmanship for the actual work

An approved mock-up becomes the benchmark against which the installed work is judged.

Question 116: A Job Hazard Analysis (JHA) is best described as which process?

Breaking a task into steps, identifying hazards for each, and defining controls (Correct answer)
A calculation of the company's EMR
An annual audit of the company safety manual
A post-incident root cause investigation

Correct answer: Breaking a task into steps, identifying hazards for each, and defining controls

A JHA proactively reviews each step of a job to identify hazards and specify controls before work begins.

Question 117: In a life-cycle cost analysis, what is the present value of a $10,000 replacement cost occurring in 5 years at a 6% discount rate?

$7,000
$13,382
$8,396
$7,473 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: $7,473

PV = $10,000 / 1.06^5 = $10,000 / 1.3382 = $7,473.

Question 118: In trench excavations 4 feet or more deep, a stairway, ladder, or ramp must be located so lateral travel to it is no more than:

50 feet
25 feet (Correct answer)
35 feet
15 feet

Correct answer: 25 feet

1926.651(c)(2) requires a means of egress within 25 feet of lateral travel for workers in trenches 4 feet or deeper.

Question 119: Which scheduling method uses a network diagram to identify the longest path through a project?

Critical Path Method (CPM) (Correct answer)
Line of Balance
Gantt Chart
Resource Leveling

Correct answer: Critical Path Method (CPM)

CPM identifies the critical path — the longest sequence of dependent tasks — to determine the minimum project duration.

Question 120: How can client communication & service be improved in a American Institute of Constructors setting?

Eliminating face-to-face interactions
Standardizing all messages without personalization
Regular feedback mechanisms and training in communication skills (Correct answer)
Reducing the frequency of communications

Correct answer: Regular feedback mechanisms and training in communication skills

Regular feedback mechanisms identify communication gaps while training develops the skills needed to address them effectively.

Question 121: A contractor finds concealed subsurface rock that the contract documents did not show. Under A201, what must the contractor do first?

Remove the rock and then bill the owner on time-and-materials
Keep working and file a claim at project closeout
Stop all work on the project indefinitely
Promptly notify the owner and architect before disturbing the conditions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Promptly notify the owner and architect before disturbing the conditions

A201 §3.7.4 requires notice before the conditions are disturbed, and no later than 14 days after first observing them.

Question 122: A general contractor wants coverage under a subcontractor's commercial general liability policy for claims arising from the sub's work. What should the GC require?

A builder's risk policy
A payment bond
An additional insured endorsement (Correct answer)
A certificate of occupancy

Correct answer: An additional insured endorsement

An additional insured endorsement extends the sub's CGL coverage to protect the GC for liability arising from the sub's operations.

Question 123: An owner-caused delay extends the project, and the contractor wants home office overhead it could not absorb. Which method is commonly used to calculate it?

Eichleay formula (Correct answer)
Measured mile analysis
Earned value analysis
Total cost method

Correct answer: Eichleay formula

The Eichleay formula allocates unabsorbed home office overhead to the days of compensable owner-caused delay.

Question 124: Which NFPA standard governs the inspection, testing, and maintenance of water-based fire protection systems such as sprinklers?

NFPA 72
NFPA 25 (Correct answer)
NFPA 13
NFPA 101

Correct answer: NFPA 25

NFPA 25 covers ITM of sprinkler, standpipe, and fire pump systems, while NFPA 13 covers their installation.

Question 125: When multiple paths have zero total float, the project is said to have:

Multiple critical paths, increasing schedule risk (Correct answer)
No critical path
A resource-leveled schedule
Excess float available

Correct answer: Multiple critical paths, increasing schedule risk

Several zero-float paths mean delays on any of them delay completion, increasing overall schedule risk.

Question 126: White powdery deposits appear on a brick wall after heavy rains. What should the first maintenance step be?

Apply a waterproof paint immediately
Replace all affected brick
Find and stop the source of water moving through the masonry (Correct answer)
Sandblast the entire wall

Correct answer: Find and stop the source of water moving through the masonry

Efflorescence comes from water carrying soluble salts to the surface, so controlling the moisture source comes first.

Question 127: Under the IBC, what is the maximum riser height and minimum tread depth for most commercial stairways?

7 inches riser, 11 inches tread (Correct answer)
7-3/4 inches riser, 10 inches tread
6 inches riser, 12 inches tread
8 inches riser, 9 inches tread

Correct answer: 7 inches riser, 11 inches tread

IBC 1011.5.2 sets a 7-inch maximum riser and 11-inch minimum tread, while the IRC allows 7-3/4 and 10 inches for dwellings.

Question 128: Before renovation work that will disturb building materials in a commercial facility, the asbestos NESHAP requires:

No action if the building is under 50 years old
Only a visual check by the superintendent
Air monitoring after work is complete only
A thorough asbestos inspection of affected areas (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A thorough asbestos inspection of affected areas

EPA NESHAP (40 CFR 61 Subpart M) requires a thorough inspection for asbestos before renovation or demolition.

Question 129: A contractor building the main wind- or seismic-force-resisting system of a structure that needs special inspection for those systems must submit what to the building official?

A certificate of substantial completion
A contractor's statement of responsibility (Correct answer)
A deferred submittal request
A performance bond

Correct answer: A contractor's statement of responsibility

IBC 1704.4 requires a written statement of responsibility from each contractor working on the main wind- or seismic-force-resisting system.

Question 130: What is a critical path in a construction schedule?

A list of required safety checks.
The longest sequence determining project duration. (Correct answer)
The sequence of least important activities.
The budget summary.

Correct answer: The longest sequence determining project duration.

In a construction schedule, the critical path is the longest sequence of activities that must be completed on time for the entire project to finish by its deadline. Any delay in an activity on the critical path will directly delay the project's overall completion. Identifying and managing the critical path is essential for effective project control and ensuring timely delivery.

Question 131: In construction workforce management, 'manpower loading' refers to:

Calculating total labor cost as a percentage of the bid
The ratio of skilled to unskilled labor on the crew
Plotting the number of workers required over the project timeline to match schedule demands (Correct answer)
The maximum weight a worker can carry on site

Correct answer: Plotting the number of workers required over the project timeline to match schedule demands

Manpower loading charts show how many workers are needed in each time period, helping managers plan hiring, layoffs, and resource allocation.

Question 132: What is the ethical obligation of a constructor when they discover that a project's environmental permits may have been obtained fraudulently?

Document the concern and proceed at the owner's written direction
Continue work since permit compliance is the owner's responsibility
Notify the relevant regulatory authority and refuse to continue work that violates law (Correct answer)
Seek legal advice privately and take no external action

Correct answer: Notify the relevant regulatory authority and refuse to continue work that violates law

Fraudulently obtained permits involve illegal activity that can harm the public and environment, obligating the constructor to notify authorities and refuse complicity.

Question 133: An owner repeatedly calls the superintendent directly with design change requests. What is the best practice response?

Implement changes immediately to keep the owner happy
Charge a fee for each phone call
Courteously route the requests through the formal change process and project manager (Correct answer)
Ignore the calls entirely

Correct answer: Courteously route the requests through the formal change process and project manager

Routing changes through the formal process protects scope, cost, and schedule while keeping the client relationship positive.

Question 134: A project's total cost is $500,000 and the contractor wants a 10% profit margin based on selling price. What is the bid price?

$600,000
$550,000
$545,455
$555,556 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: $555,556

Price = cost / (1 - margin) = $500,000 / 0.90 = $555,556.

Question 135: Under the AIC Body of Knowledge, which document formally establishes the project baseline schedule?

The subcontractor's 2-week look-ahead
The schedule approved by the owner and incorporated into the contract (Correct answer)
The bid schedule submitted at tender
The contractor's internal Gantt chart

Correct answer: The schedule approved by the owner and incorporated into the contract

The baseline schedule is the owner-approved, contract-incorporated schedule against which all progress and changes are measured.

Question 136: Which compactor is most effective on granular soils such as sand and gravel?

Sheepsfoot roller
Tamping foot roller on clay
Vibratory smooth-drum roller (Correct answer)
Grid roller on wet clay

Correct answer: Vibratory smooth-drum roller

Vibration rearranges granular particles into a denser packing, so vibratory smooth drums work best on sands and gravels.

Question 137: Which field device is commonly used to quickly measure in-place density and moisture of compacted fill?

Schmidt rebound hammer
Nuclear density gauge (Correct answer)
Slump cone
Ultrasonic thickness gauge

Correct answer: Nuclear density gauge

A nuclear density gauge gives rapid in-place density and moisture readings for compaction testing.

Question 138: When materials are delivered, what should the receiving person check first?

The invoice payment terms
The quantity and condition against the packing slip and purchase order (Correct answer)
The manufacturer's stock price
The supplier's credit rating

Correct answer: The quantity and condition against the packing slip and purchase order

Comparing deliveries to the packing slip and PO catches shortages, wrong items, and damage right away.

Question 139: Under OSHA Subpart R (Steel Erection), the general fall protection trigger height for workers other than connectors and deckers in a CDZ is:

10 feet
15 feet (Correct answer)
30 feet
6 feet

Correct answer: 15 feet

Steel erection workers must be protected from falls of more than 15 feet above a lower level.

Question 140: For acceptance testing, concrete cylinders made per ASTM C31 should be cured how?

Left uncovered in direct sunlight
Standard-cured under controlled moisture and temperature after initial curing (Correct answer)
Field-cured next to the structure only
Submerged in the ready-mix truck's wash water

Correct answer: Standard-cured under controlled moisture and temperature after initial curing

Standard-cured cylinders are used for strength acceptance, while field-cured cylinders assess in-place curing or formwork removal timing.

Question 141: Which document certifies the date when the work is sufficiently complete for the owner to occupy or use it for its intended purpose?

Certificate of Substantial Completion (Correct answer)
Notice to Proceed
Final Lien Waiver
Certificate of Occupancy

Correct answer: Certificate of Substantial Completion

The Certificate of Substantial Completion (AIA G704) establishes that date and responsibilities for remaining items.

Question 142: Under AIA A201, a contractor has not been paid within 7 days of the payment due date through no fault of its own. What may it do next?

Stop work after an additional 7 days' written notice to the owner and architect (Correct answer)
Stop work immediately with no notice
Terminate the contract the next day
Stop work only after 60 days without payment

Correct answer: Stop work after an additional 7 days' written notice to the owner and architect

A201 §9.7 lets the contractor stop work after giving 7 additional days' written notice.

Question 143: When replacing a failed sealant joint, why is a backer rod installed?

To replace the need for primer
To bond the sealant to the back of the joint
To control sealant depth and prevent three-sided adhesion (Correct answer)
To add color to the joint

Correct answer: To control sealant depth and prevent three-sided adhesion

The backer rod sets the proper hourglass profile and depth and prevents three-sided adhesion, which causes premature failure.

Question 144: Above what height must employees working on a scaffold be protected by guardrails or personal fall arrest systems?

10 feet (Correct answer)
12 feet
8 feet
6 feet

Correct answer: 10 feet

OSHA Subpart L requires fall protection for scaffold workers more than 10 feet above a lower level.

Question 145: When a construction activity has Total Float = 0, it means:

The activity has been completed
Any delay to that activity will delay the project completion date (Correct answer)
Resources have been fully allocated to that activity
The activity can be rescheduled freely

Correct answer: Any delay to that activity will delay the project completion date

Zero total float identifies a critical activity — any delay to it directly extends the overall project finish date.

Question 146: Which of the following is an example of personal protective equipment (PPE)?

Steel-toe boots (Correct answer)
Emergency action plan
Warning signs
Guardrails

Correct answer: Steel-toe boots

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) refers to clothing or equipment designed to protect workers from hazards. Steel-toe boots protect feet from falling objects and compression. Guardrails and warning signs are engineering and administrative controls, respectively, while an emergency action plan is a procedural document.

Question 147: Which of the following tools is most commonly used to visually represent a construction schedule?

Safety Audit Report
Risk Register
SWOT Analysis
Gantt Chart (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Gantt Chart

A Gantt chart is a widely used project management tool that provides a visual representation of a project schedule. It displays tasks, their durations, and dependencies against a timeline, making it easy to see the start and end dates of activities and the overall project timeline. This visual clarity helps in planning, coordinating, and monitoring project progress.

Question 148: When a constructor becomes aware that a project's structural design may be deficient, the most ethically appropriate first step is to:

Consult legal counsel before taking any action
Stop all work and contact the local building department directly
Proceed with construction and document the concern in a daily log
Immediately notify the engineer of record and the owner in writing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediately notify the engineer of record and the owner in writing

Promptly notifying the engineer of record and owner in writing ensures the design professional can evaluate and resolve the concern before it becomes a safety hazard.

Question 149: Where are owner-furnished, contractor-installed (OFCI) items usually tracked to coordinate delivery?

The safety plan only
The procurement schedule as owner-dependent activities (Correct answer)
They do not need tracking
The contractor's tax return

Correct answer: The procurement schedule as owner-dependent activities

OFCI deliveries are owner-controlled constraints and should appear in the procurement schedule to coordinate installation.

Question 150: A constructor who provides false information on a project progress report to the owner is violating which fundamental ethical principle?

Honesty and integrity (Correct answer)
Professional competence
Sustainability
Community responsibility

Correct answer: Honesty and integrity

Providing false information directly violates the core ethical principle of honesty and integrity that underpins all professional relationships.

Question 151: Which document typically identifies changes to the original contract terms, scope, or price?

Change Order (Correct answer)
Daily report
Lien waiver
Payment application

Correct answer: Change Order

A Change Order is a formal document that modifies the original construction contract. It is used to record and authorize changes to the project's scope of work, contract price, or schedule. Change orders are essential for documenting agreements between the owner and contractor regarding unforeseen conditions or requested alterations.

Associate Constructor (AC) Exam

This exam certifies entry-level knowledge and skills in construction management, covering fundamental principles and practices.

150

Questions

240 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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