Associate Constructor (AC) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which equipment cost usually rises as the machine gets older?

Repair and maintenance costs (Correct answer)
Interest on the purchase price
Annual depreciation under straight-line
Initial purchase price

Correct answer: Repair and maintenance costs

Repair and maintenance costs generally climb as equipment ages, which drives replacement decisions.

Question 2: A crane's rated load capacity typically decreases when:

The load is lifted slowly
Outriggers are fully extended
The load radius increases (Correct answer)
The boom angle increases

Correct answer: The load radius increases

Crane capacity drops as the radius from the center of rotation to the load grows.

Question 3: An owner disputes a pay application line item. What is the best first step?

File a mechanic's lien the same day
Stop work immediately
Remove the line item without discussion
Meet to review backup documentation and the schedule of values (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Meet to review backup documentation and the schedule of values

Reviewing supporting documentation resolves most payment disagreements at the lowest level.

Question 4: Which factor has the greatest impact on fluctuating construction material costs?

Supervisor experience
Weather conditions
Project location signage
Market conditions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Market conditions

Market conditions, including supply and demand, economic trends, and global events, have the greatest impact on fluctuating construction material costs. Factors like raw material availability, transportation costs, trade policies, and overall economic health directly influence pricing. These external forces can cause significant and rapid changes in material expenses, impacting project budgets.

Question 5: Which IBC construction type allows exterior walls of noncombustible materials while interior building elements may be of any material permitted by code?

Type II
Type IV
Type V
Type III (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Type III

Type III construction requires noncombustible (or fire-retardant-treated wood) exterior walls, while interior elements may be any permitted material.

Question 6: Which surety bond guarantees the owner that the contractor will complete the work according to the contract terms?

Bid bond
Payment bond
Performance bond (Correct answer)
License bond

Correct answer: Performance bond

A performance bond protects the owner if the contractor defaults on completing the contracted work.

Question 7: Under the straight-line method, a $200,000 loader with a $20,000 salvage value and a 6-year life depreciates how much per year?

$36,667
$33,333
$30,000 (Correct answer)
$20,000

Correct answer: $30,000

($200,000 − $20,000) ÷ 6 = $30,000 per year.

Question 8: In multistory concrete construction, what is reshoring?

Adding shores to the formwork before concrete placement
Placing shores under a slab after the original forms and shores have been removed (Correct answer)
Removing all shores at once after 28 days
Bracing excavation walls with timber

Correct answer: Placing shores under a slab after the original forms and shores have been removed

Reshores are placed after stripping to support young slabs and spread construction loads to the floors below.

Question 9: When a construction activity has Total Float = 0, it means:

Resources have been fully allocated to that activity
The activity has been completed
Any delay to that activity will delay the project completion date (Correct answer)
The activity can be rescheduled freely

Correct answer: Any delay to that activity will delay the project completion date

Zero total float identifies a critical activity — any delay to it directly extends the overall project finish date.

Question 10: Under OSHA, how far back from the edge of an excavation must spoil piles and equipment be kept, at minimum?

5 feet
2 feet (Correct answer)
10 feet
1 foot

Correct answer: 2 feet

OSHA 1926.651(j)(2) requires materials and equipment to be at least 2 feet from the excavation edge.

Question 11: An owner lets non-critical light fixtures operate until they fail, then replaces them. This is best described as:

Run-to-failure (corrective) maintenance (Correct answer)
Reliability-centered maintenance
Predictive maintenance
Proactive maintenance

Correct answer: Run-to-failure (corrective) maintenance

Run-to-failure is a deliberate corrective strategy for low-cost, non-critical items where failure has little consequence.

Question 12: A wellpoint system on a construction site is used to do what?

Monitor settlement of adjacent buildings
Test pile capacity
Inject grout to stabilize soils
Lower the groundwater table to allow dry excavation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Lower the groundwater table to allow dry excavation

Wellpoints are closely spaced small wells connected to a header and pump that draw down groundwater.

Question 13: Under OSHA 1926.453, what fall protection is required for workers in a boom-supported aerial lift?

A body belt or harness with lanyard attached to the boom or basket (Correct answer)
None if the guardrails are intact
A safety net below the work area
A lanyard tied to an adjacent structure

Correct answer: A body belt or harness with lanyard attached to the boom or basket

Workers in boom lifts must wear fall protection with the lanyard attached to the boom or basket, never to a nearby structure.

Question 14: Under the AIC's ethical standards, how should a constructor handle confidential project information obtained from a previous client?

Disclose it only to competitors who are bidding on similar work
Share it with the new client if it would benefit the current project
Use it freely if the previous contract has ended
Keep it strictly confidential and never use it to the detriment of the former client (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Keep it strictly confidential and never use it to the detriment of the former client

Constructors are ethically obligated to maintain confidentiality of client information indefinitely, not just during the project.

Question 15: A trench planned to be 22 feet deep requires a protective system designed by whom?

A registered professional engineer (Correct answer)
The competent person on site
The superintendent
The OSHA area director

Correct answer: A registered professional engineer

Protective systems for excavations deeper than 20 feet must be designed by a registered professional engineer.

Question 16: Which international standard specifies requirements for a quality management system that construction firms may be certified to?

ISO 31000
ISO 14001
ISO 9001 (Correct answer)
ISO 45001

Correct answer: ISO 9001

ISO 9001 is the quality management system standard; 14001 is environmental and 45001 is safety.

Question 17: An activity's duration is calculated as 2,400 SF of formwork at a crew productivity of 300 SF per day. What is the duration?

6 days
12 days
8 days (Correct answer)
7 days

Correct answer: 8 days

Duration = quantity / productivity rate = 2,400 / 300 = 8 days.

Question 18: Under OSHA Subpart R (Steel Erection), the general fall protection trigger height for workers other than connectors and deckers in a CDZ is:

30 feet
10 feet
6 feet
15 feet (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 15 feet

Steel erection workers must be protected from falls of more than 15 feet above a lower level.

Question 19: A load chart rating is based on outriggers being fully extended. What should the crew do if the outriggers can only be partly extended?

Use the load chart for that specific outrigger position, if the manufacturer provides one (Correct answer)
Proceed if the ground is firm
Add counterweight beyond the manufacturer's limit
Use the full-extension chart with a 10% reduction

Correct answer: Use the load chart for that specific outrigger position, if the manufacturer provides one

Capacity must come from the manufacturer's chart for the actual outrigger configuration.

Question 20: Which activity relationship is rarest in construction scheduling and generally discouraged?

Start-to-Start
Finish-to-Start
Finish-to-Finish
Start-to-Finish (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Start-to-Finish

Start-to-Finish relationships are counterintuitive and rarely appropriate, so most scheduling specifications discourage them.

Question 21: A general contractor wants coverage under a subcontractor's commercial general liability policy for claims arising from the sub's work. What should the GC require?

A builder's risk policy
A payment bond
A certificate of occupancy
An additional insured endorsement (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An additional insured endorsement

An additional insured endorsement extends the sub's CGL coverage to protect the GC for liability arising from the sub's operations.

Question 22: A subcontractor offers a project manager tickets to a major sporting event during contract negotiations. Under ethical guidelines, the project manager should:

Decline the gift to avoid any appearance of impropriety (Correct answer)
Accept the tickets if their value is below $100
Accept but disclose the gift to senior management only after award
Accept the tickets as a routine business courtesy

Correct answer: Decline the gift to avoid any appearance of impropriety

Ethical guidelines require constructors to avoid gifts or gratuities that could influence, or appear to influence, procurement decisions.

Question 23: In tilt-up construction, how are the wall panels typically produced?

Precast at an off-site plant and trucked in
Cast horizontally on the floor slab or a casting bed, then lifted into place by crane (Correct answer)
Cast vertically in gang forms
Slipformed continuously in place

Correct answer: Cast horizontally on the floor slab or a casting bed, then lifted into place by crane

Tilt-up panels are cast flat on site, usually on the building slab, then tilted up with a crane.

Question 24: OSHA defines a 'competent person' as someone who can identify existing and predictable hazards and also has what?

An OSHA 500 trainer card
At least 10 years of field experience
A college degree in safety
Authority to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Authority to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them

A competent person must both recognize hazards and have the authority to take prompt corrective action.

Question 25: Material laydown areas should be planned mainly to:

Maximize the distance from the work
Avoid being shown on the site logistics plan
Put all materials at the site entrance
Minimize double-handling and keep materials close to where they will be installed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Minimize double-handling and keep materials close to where they will be installed

Good laydown planning cuts rehandling and travel time while staying clear of work areas and access routes.

Question 26: Under the IBC, a high-rise building is one with an occupied floor located more than how far above the lowest level of fire department vehicle access?

55 feet
120 feet
75 feet (Correct answer)
100 feet

Correct answer: 75 feet

The IBC defines a high-rise as having an occupied floor more than 75 feet above the lowest level of fire department vehicle access.

Question 27: Which machine works best for excavating soft, wet material below grade at a long reach, such as dredging a canal?

Dragline (Correct answer)
Skid-steer loader
Front shovel
Bulldozer

Correct answer: Dragline

A dragline casts its bucket far out and drags it back, which suits wet material at long reach.

Question 28: A GA-214 Level 5 gypsum board finish is distinguished by what?

Texture spray only
A thin skim coat of joint compound over the entire surface (Correct answer)
Tape embedded only, no coating
No joint treatment at all

Correct answer: A thin skim coat of joint compound over the entire surface

Level 5 adds a skim coat over the whole surface for walls with critical lighting or gloss paint.

Question 29: Under OSHA crane rules, how often must a competent person visually inspect wire rope in active use?

Each shift (Correct answer)
Monthly
Weekly
Annually

Correct answer: Each shift

OSHA 1926.1413 requires a visual inspection of wire rope by a competent person every shift.

Question 30: A stored-materials payment request for items held off site usually requires:

Proof of insurance, title transfer documentation, and owner approval (Correct answer)
Nothing beyond an invoice
Verbal confirmation from the supplier
Delivery to the owner's home office

Correct answer: Proof of insurance, title transfer documentation, and owner approval

Owners usually require bills of sale, insurance, and sometimes inspection before paying for materials stored off site.

Question 31: What does a transmittal accomplish when sending documents to the owner?

It records what was sent, to whom, when, and for what purpose (Correct answer)
It serves as a change order
It replaces the submittal log
It approves the documents

Correct answer: It records what was sent, to whom, when, and for what purpose

Transmittals provide a documented chain of custody for project communications.

Question 32: White powdery deposits appear on a brick wall after heavy rains. What should the first maintenance step be?

Find and stop the source of water moving through the masonry (Correct answer)
Sandblast the entire wall
Apply a waterproof paint immediately
Replace all affected brick

Correct answer: Find and stop the source of water moving through the masonry

Efflorescence comes from water carrying soluble salts to the surface, so controlling the moisture source comes first.

Question 33: What is the primary purpose of a Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)?

To schedule project deadlines.
To conduct employee performance reviews.
To determine employee salaries.
To identify potential job hazards and implement controls. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To identify potential job hazards and implement controls.

A Job Hazard Analysis (JHA) is a systematic process used to identify potential hazards associated with each step of a specific job or task. Once identified, the JHA then outlines the necessary control measures to eliminate or reduce these risks to an acceptable level. This proactive approach is crucial for preventing accidents and ensuring worker safety on construction sites.

Question 34: A public owner terminates a contract for convenience. What can the contractor typically recover?

Cost of work performed plus reasonable overhead and profit on that work (Correct answer)
Anticipated profit on the entire contract
Nothing beyond retainage
Liquidated damages from the owner

Correct answer: Cost of work performed plus reasonable overhead and profit on that work

A termination-for-convenience recovery covers work performed and wind-down costs, not lost profit on unperformed work.

Question 35: In a risk register, a risk with a 20% probability and a $150,000 impact has an expected monetary value of:

$30,000 (Correct answer)
$120,000
$15,000
$150,000

Correct answer: $30,000

EMV = probability x impact = 0.20 x $150,000 = $30,000.

Question 36: A site logistics plan typically addresses all of the following EXCEPT:

Material laydown and staging areas
Temporary access roads and gates
Subcontractor payment retainage percentages (Correct answer)
Crane locations and swing radius

Correct answer: Subcontractor payment retainage percentages

Retainage is a contract and payment term, not a physical site logistics element.

Question 37: A continuous footing is 2 ft wide, 1 ft deep, and 150 LF long. What is its concrete volume?

22.2 CY
33.3 CY
11.1 CY (Correct answer)
5.6 CY

Correct answer: 11.1 CY

2 x 1 x 150 = 300 CF, and 300 / 27 = 11.1 CY.

Question 38: How does a direct tension indicator (DTI) washer show adequate bolt pretension?

A spline twists off the bolt end
Its protrusions compress until the gap is reduced to a specified feeler-gage refusal (Correct answer)
It changes color when heated
It produces an audible click

Correct answer: Its protrusions compress until the gap is reduced to a specified feeler-gage refusal

DTI protrusions flatten under bolt tension, and installers check the remaining gap with a feeler gage.

Question 39: The principle of 'fairness to competitors' in construction ethics primarily requires that constructors:

Compete on the basis of merit and refrain from false or misleading statements about competitors (Correct answer)
Avoid bidding in markets where a competitor has an established presence
Share project estimates with competitors to ensure fair pricing
Match competitors' bids within 5% to promote market stability

Correct answer: Compete on the basis of merit and refrain from false or misleading statements about competitors

Ethical competition requires relying on one's own qualifications and merits while refraining from disparaging or misrepresenting competitors.

Question 40: Which element is CRITICAL for maintaining proficiency in tools & equipment operation within American Institute of Constructors?

Performing techniques only when absolutely necessary
Regular practice with ongoing professional development and skill updates (Correct answer)
Learning from informal sources without verification
Initial certification alone without continuing education

Correct answer: Regular practice with ongoing professional development and skill updates

Maintaining proficiency requires regular practice combined with ongoing professional development to stay current with evolving best practices.

Question 41: Which document lets a supplier show how a specific product meets the specification before installation?

Daily report
Certificate of substantial completion
Change order
Product data submittal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Product data submittal

Product data submittals give manufacturer information so the design team can confirm the product complies with the specifications.

Question 42: Which change can the architect order without changing the contract sum or time under A201?

A minor change in the work (Correct answer)
A value engineering proposal
A Change Order
A Construction Change Directive

Correct answer: A minor change in the work

Section 7.4 lets the architect order minor changes consistent with the design intent without adjusting sum or time.

Question 43: What is the ethical obligation of a constructor who discovers that a competitor obtained a contract through bribery of a public official?

Inform only the project owner and take no further action
Ignore it to avoid involvement in a competitor's affairs
Use the information to renegotiate their own contract terms
Report the misconduct to the appropriate authorities (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Report the misconduct to the appropriate authorities

Ethical professional practice requires constructors to report known illegal conduct, including bribery, to the appropriate authorities.

Question 44: Which repair method is most appropriate for restoring structural integrity to a dormant (non-moving) crack in a concrete beam?

Epoxy injection (Correct answer)
Applying a cementitious surface coating
Routing and sealing with polyurethane sealant
Dry-packing with sand

Correct answer: Epoxy injection

Epoxy injection bonds the crack faces of dormant cracks and restores structural continuity.

Question 45: What is a critical path in a construction schedule?

The sequence of least important activities.
The budget summary.
The longest sequence determining project duration. (Correct answer)
A list of required safety checks.

Correct answer: The longest sequence determining project duration.

In a construction schedule, the critical path is the longest sequence of activities that must be completed on time for the entire project to finish by its deadline. Any delay in an activity on the critical path will directly delay the project's overall completion. Identifying and managing the critical path is essential for effective project control and ensuring timely delivery.

Question 46: In a life-cycle cost analysis, what is the present value of a $10,000 replacement cost occurring in 5 years at a 6% discount rate?

$8,396
$13,382
$7,000
$7,473 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: $7,473

PV = $10,000 / 1.06^5 = $10,000 / 1.3382 = $7,473.

Question 47: An anchorage for a personal fall arrest system, when not designed by a qualified person, must support at least how much per employee attached?

10,000 pounds
5,000 pounds (Correct answer)
3,000 pounds
1,800 pounds

Correct answer: 5,000 pounds

1926.502(d)(15) requires anchorages to support 5,000 pounds per employee or maintain a safety factor of two under a qualified person's supervision.

Question 48: In trench excavations 4 feet or more deep, a stairway, ladder, or ramp must be located so lateral travel to it is no more than:

35 feet
25 feet (Correct answer)
15 feet
50 feet

Correct answer: 25 feet

1926.651(c)(2) requires a means of egress within 25 feet of lateral travel for workers in trenches 4 feet or deeper.

Question 49: Which of the following best describes 'fee splitting' and why it is considered unethical in construction?

Paying undisclosed referral fees to secure work, which creates hidden conflicts of interest (Correct answer)
Dividing a contract fee among multiple partners, which reduces transparency
Sharing profit with subcontractors, which undermines competitive bidding
Charging different clients different rates for the same service

Correct answer: Paying undisclosed referral fees to secure work, which creates hidden conflicts of interest

Undisclosed fee splitting creates hidden conflicts of interest and violates the principle of transparency owed to clients.

Question 50: In construction professional practice, 'bid shopping' after award is generally considered unethical because it:

Increases project cost by creating additional administrative burden
Undermines subcontractor trust and the integrity of the competitive bidding process (Correct answer)
Is prohibited by the AIC certification agreement
Violates federal procurement regulations in all jurisdictions

Correct answer: Undermines subcontractor trust and the integrity of the competitive bidding process

Bid shopping after award breaks the implicit trust of the competitive process and discourages subcontractors from submitting their best prices.

Question 51: In construction workforce management, 'manpower loading' refers to:

The ratio of skilled to unskilled labor on the crew
The maximum weight a worker can carry on site
Plotting the number of workers required over the project timeline to match schedule demands (Correct answer)
Calculating total labor cost as a percentage of the bid

Correct answer: Plotting the number of workers required over the project timeline to match schedule demands

Manpower loading charts show how many workers are needed in each time period, helping managers plan hiring, layoffs, and resource allocation.

Question 52: How should unexpected results during tools & equipment operation be handled in American Institute of Constructors?

Ignore results that do not match expectations
Attribute unexpected results to equipment error automatically
Document the findings, analyze potential causes, and consult protocols (Correct answer)
Repeat the procedure until desired results are achieved

Correct answer: Document the findings, analyze potential causes, and consult protocols

Documenting unexpected findings, analyzing causes, and consulting established protocols ensures proper investigation and appropriate response.

Question 53: A project has an earned value (EV) of $400,000 and an actual cost (AC) of $500,000. What is the Cost Performance Index and what does it show?

1.25; behind schedule
1.25; under budget
0.80; ahead of schedule
0.80; over budget (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 0.80; over budget

CPI = EV / AC = 400,000 / 500,000 = 0.80, and a CPI below 1.0 means the project is over budget.

Question 54: What is a lien waiver used for in contract administration?

To confirm payment and waive future claims (Correct answer)
To file RFIs
To track jobsite safety
To issue change orders

Correct answer: To confirm payment and waive future claims

A lien waiver is a crucial document in construction contract administration used to confirm that a party, such as a subcontractor or supplier, has received payment for their work or materials. By signing it, they legally waive their right to file a mechanics lien against the property for that specific payment amount. This protects the property owner and general contractor from future claims and ensures clear title.

Question 55: What is the main purpose of a Computerized Maintenance Management System (CMMS)?

Producing the construction schedule's critical path
Tracking work orders, asset histories, and preventive maintenance schedules (Correct answer)
Bidding maintenance subcontracts publicly
Calculating structural loads for repairs

Correct answer: Tracking work orders, asset histories, and preventive maintenance schedules

A CMMS holds asset records, creates and tracks work orders, and automates PM scheduling.

Question 56: Under IBC Chapter 33, when must a standpipe used during construction be in place in a building that requires standpipes?

Only after the permanent fire pump is commissioned
Before the building is enclosed
Before construction exceeds 40 feet above the lowest level of fire department vehicle access (Correct answer)
Before the certificate of occupancy is issued

Correct answer: Before construction exceeds 40 feet above the lowest level of fire department vehicle access

IBC 3311.1 requires at least one standpipe for construction use before the building exceeds 40 feet above the lowest fire department access level.

Question 57: Which of the following best defines 'conflict of interest' in construction professional practice?

A scheduling conflict between two concurrent projects
Disagreement between the owner and the design team
A dispute between two subcontractors on a project
A situation where a constructor's personal interests could improperly influence professional judgment (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A situation where a constructor's personal interests could improperly influence professional judgment

A conflict of interest occurs when a constructor has personal, financial, or other interests that could compromise or appear to compromise their professional judgment.

Question 58: A subcontract clause requiring the sub to defend and hold the general contractor harmless from claims arising from the sub's work is called what?

Force majeure clause
No-damages-for-delay clause
Liquidated damages clause
Indemnification clause (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Indemnification clause

An indemnification (hold harmless) clause shifts liability for certain losses from one party to another.

Question 59: Which statement about shop drawings under AIA A201 is correct?

They are not contract documents (Correct answer)
They become contract documents once approved
Only the owner can approve them
They override the specifications when they conflict

Correct answer: They are not contract documents

A201 §3.12.4 says shop drawings, product data, and samples are not Contract Documents; they show how the contractor intends to meet the design.

Question 60: An owner makes a contractor meet the original deadline despite excusable delays, and refuses to grant time extensions. What may the contractor claim?

Constructive acceleration (Correct answer)
Accord and satisfaction
Cardinal change
Termination for default

Correct answer: Constructive acceleration

Constructive acceleration occurs when the owner forces faster work by denying time extensions the contractor is entitled to.

Question 61: What is the primary purpose of a pre-task plan (PTP) in construction workforce management?

To identify hazards and assign controls before crew members begin a specific work task (Correct answer)
To update the master schedule with daily production data
To document worker wages for payroll processing
To record punch-in and punch-out times for all workers

Correct answer: To identify hazards and assign controls before crew members begin a specific work task

Pre-task plans require crew members to identify job-specific hazards and controls before starting work, promoting hazard awareness and accountability.

Question 62: Under OSHA construction noise rules (1926.52), what is the permissible exposure limit for an 8-hour time-weighted average?

80 dBA
85 dBA
90 dBA (Correct answer)
95 dBA

Correct answer: 90 dBA

Table D-2 of 1926.52 sets the 8-hour PEL at 90 dBA.

Question 63: AIC members are expected to pursue continuing education primarily because:

It generates networking opportunities that lead to new contracts
Ongoing learning maintains the competence necessary to serve clients and the public responsibly (Correct answer)
It is the only way to maintain state contractor licensing
It is required by federal law for all contractors

Correct answer: Ongoing learning maintains the competence necessary to serve clients and the public responsibly

The AIC expects members to pursue continuing education to maintain and expand the competence required to practice responsibly and ethically.

Question 64: In American Institute of Constructors, how should materials & resource management challenges be prioritized?

By the preferences of senior management
Based on potential impact, urgency, and alignment with strategic objectives (Correct answer)
Based solely on cost considerations
In the order they were identified

Correct answer: Based on potential impact, urgency, and alignment with strategic objectives

Prioritizing based on impact, urgency, and strategic alignment ensures resources are directed where they will produce the greatest benefit.

Question 65: A contractor claims lost labor productivity. Which method compares productivity in an unimpacted period with productivity in an impacted period?

Eichleay formula
Critical path method
Measured mile analysis (Correct answer)
Total cost method

Correct answer: Measured mile analysis

Measured mile analysis compares unimpacted and impacted periods on the same project to isolate the productivity loss.

Question 66: What is the MOST important skill for effective materials & resource management in American Institute of Constructors?

Maintaining strict authority over all decisions
Clear communication and the ability to align team efforts with objectives (Correct answer)
Technical expertise alone without people skills
Avoiding conflict at all costs

Correct answer: Clear communication and the ability to align team efforts with objectives

Clear communication is essential for aligning team efforts, building consensus, and ensuring everyone understands and works toward shared objectives.

Question 67: What is the primary purpose of a lockout/tagout procedure during equipment maintenance?

To document equipment repair history for warranties
To prevent unexpected energization or release of stored energy while workers service equipment (Correct answer)
To restrict unauthorized operators from using equipment during the shift
To satisfy insurance requirements for equipment rental

Correct answer: To prevent unexpected energization or release of stored energy while workers service equipment

Lockout/tagout isolates hazardous energy so machinery cannot start or release energy during servicing.

Question 68: According to the AIC Code of Ethics, what is a constructor's primary professional obligation when a conflict arises between client interests and public safety?

Follow whichever course minimizes project delays
Defer to the project engineer's judgment
Prioritize the client's financial interests
Prioritize public safety above client interests (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Prioritize public safety above client interests

The AIC Code of Ethics mandates that constructors place public safety, health, and welfare above all other considerations, including client interests.

Question 69: A hidden defect that a reasonable inspection at turnover could not have found is called a:

Punch-list item
Change directive
Latent defect (Correct answer)
Patent defect

Correct answer: Latent defect

Latent defects are concealed defects, and they are often subject to longer statutes of limitation or repose.

Question 70: An estimate that prices complete building components, such as an exterior wall per SF including studs, sheathing, insulation, and finish, is called a(n):

Square-foot estimate
Order-of-magnitude estimate
Detailed unit-price estimate
Assemblies (systems) estimate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Assemblies (systems) estimate

Assemblies estimates group related items into systems and are commonly used during design development.

Question 71: Which type of delay usually entitles a contractor to a time extension but no additional money?

Late owner-furnished equipment
Owner-caused design error
Unusually severe weather (Correct answer)
Owner-ordered suspension of work

Correct answer: Unusually severe weather

Severe weather is generally an excusable but non-compensable delay.

Question 72: In CSI MasterFormat (2004 and later editions), Division 31 covers:

Plumbing
Electrical
Earthwork (Correct answer)
Finishes

Correct answer: Earthwork

Division 31 is Earthwork, while Electrical is 26, Plumbing is 22, and Finishes is 09.

Question 73: An owner orders changes so extensive that the project is fundamentally different from what was bargained for. What is this called?

Constructive change
Minor change
Cardinal change (Correct answer)
Deductive change

Correct answer: Cardinal change

A cardinal change goes beyond the scope of the original contract and can be treated as a breach.

Question 74: In PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique), the expected duration of an activity is calculated as:

(Optimistic + 4×Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 6 (Correct answer)
(Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 2
Pessimistic - Optimistic
(Optimistic + Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 3

Correct answer: (Optimistic + 4×Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 6

PERT uses a weighted average formula — (O + 4M + P) / 6 — giving the most weight to the most likely estimate.

Question 75: In the context of construction professional ethics, 'whistleblowing' is considered justified when:

Internal reporting has failed to correct illegal or seriously unethical conduct that threatens public safety (Correct answer)
A competitor consistently underbids your firm on public projects
A subcontractor is performing slower than their schedule commitments
A client refuses to approve a legitimate change order request

Correct answer: Internal reporting has failed to correct illegal or seriously unethical conduct that threatens public safety

External whistleblowing is ethically justified when internal reporting mechanisms have failed to address illegal or seriously unethical conduct that poses a threat to public safety.

Question 76: Under OSHA 1926.302(e), who may operate a powder-actuated fastening tool?

Any worker wearing safety glasses
Only the site superintendent
Any journeyman carpenter
Only employees trained in its operation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Only employees trained in its operation

OSHA allows only trained employees to operate powder-actuated tools.

Question 77: A crew of 4 installs 800 LF of pipe in 5 eight-hour days. What is the productivity rate in LF per labor-hour?

2.5 LF/labor-hour
5.0 LF/labor-hour (Correct answer)
20 LF/labor-hour
40 LF/labor-hour

Correct answer: 5.0 LF/labor-hour

4 workers × 40 hours = 160 labor-hours; 800 ÷ 160 = 5.0 LF per labor-hour.

Question 78: A cost-loaded schedule is most useful for which purpose?

Developing safety orientation content
Tracking RFIs
Producing a projected cash flow (S-curve) (Correct answer)
Determining crane capacity

Correct answer: Producing a projected cash flow (S-curve)

Assigning costs to activities lets planners forecast cash flow over time, typically shown as an S-curve.

Question 79: Which compaction equipment is best suited to cohesive clay soils?

Smooth steel-drum vibratory roller
Sheepsfoot (padfoot) roller (Correct answer)
Pneumatic-tired roller on sand
Vibratory plate compactor

Correct answer: Sheepsfoot (padfoot) roller

Sheepsfoot rollers knead and compact cohesive soils from the bottom of the lift upward.

Question 80: What is the PRIMARY benefit of continuous improvement in materials & resource management for American Institute of Constructors?

Enhanced efficiency, quality, and competitive advantage over time (Correct answer)
Increased complexity in operations
Reduced need for employee input
Higher operational costs in the short term

Correct answer: Enhanced efficiency, quality, and competitive advantage over time

Continuous improvement systematically enhances efficiency and quality, leading to sustained competitive advantage.

Question 81: What is typically added to a construction estimate to account for unforeseen costs?

Profit margin
Labor surcharge
Owner’s fee
Contingency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Contingency

A contingency is a specific amount of money added to a construction estimate to cover unforeseen costs, risks, or scope changes that may arise during the project. It acts as a buffer against unexpected events like design errors, material price fluctuations, or difficult site conditions. Including a contingency helps ensure the project remains financially viable even when facing uncertainties.

Question 82: In a CPM network, an activity has ES=10, EF=15, LS=14, and LF=19. What is its total float?

4 days (Correct answer)
9 days
0 days
5 days

Correct answer: 4 days

Total float equals LS minus ES (or LF minus EF), which is 14 - 10 = 4 days.

Question 83: In American Institute of Constructors, what role does employee training play in safety protocols & compliance?

It is optional and only for new employees
It primarily serves as a legal formality
It ensures all personnel can recognize, report, and respond to hazards (Correct answer)
It is only needed after an incident occurs

Correct answer: It ensures all personnel can recognize, report, and respond to hazards

Training empowers all personnel to recognize hazards, follow proper procedures, and respond effectively, making it a cornerstone of any safety program.

Question 84: Which field device is commonly used to quickly measure in-place density and moisture of compacted fill?

Schmidt rebound hammer
Slump cone
Ultrasonic thickness gauge
Nuclear density gauge (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Nuclear density gauge

A nuclear density gauge gives rapid in-place density and moisture readings for compaction testing.

Question 85: In cost-of-quality analysis, field inspection and material testing are classified as which cost category?

Internal failure costs
External failure costs
Appraisal costs (Correct answer)
Prevention costs

Correct answer: Appraisal costs

Appraisal costs are spent measuring and evaluating work to verify it conforms to requirements.

Question 86: Under the IBC, a college classroom building is generally classified as which occupancy group?

Group I-4
Group B (Correct answer)
Group E
Group A-3

Correct answer: Group B

Group E covers education through the 12th grade; education above 12th grade is classified as Group B.

Question 87: What is the maximum allowable slope (H:V) for a simple sloped excavation less than 20 feet deep in Type C soil?

3/4:1
2:1
1½:1 (Correct answer)
1:1

Correct answer: 1½:1

Appendix B of Subpart P limits Type C soil slopes to 1½:1 (about 34 degrees).

Question 88: Under OSHA Subpart L, fall protection is required for employees on a scaffold more than how many feet above a lower level?

4 feet
10 feet (Correct answer)
15 feet
6 feet

Correct answer: 10 feet

Scaffold users require fall protection when working more than 10 feet above a lower level.

Question 89: Which communication approach best manages client expectations when a schedule delay becomes likely?

Let the subcontractor inform the owner
Give early written notice with the cause, impact, and recovery options (Correct answer)
Mention it informally at the final walkthrough
Wait until the delay is certain before saying anything

Correct answer: Give early written notice with the cause, impact, and recovery options

Early, transparent notice with options preserves trust and contractual rights.

Question 90: Which document typically defines the project's scope, objectives, and key deliverables?

Resource Plan
Project Schedule
Project Charter (Correct answer)
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

Correct answer: Project Charter

The Project Charter is a foundational document that formally authorizes a project and provides a high-level overview. It typically defines the project's scope, objectives, key deliverables, stakeholders, and overall success criteria. This document serves as an agreement among stakeholders, establishing the project's purpose and boundaries.

Question 91: Under OSHA regulations, who is responsible for ensuring subcontractor employees comply with site safety rules on a multi-employer construction site?

Only OSHA compliance officers
Only the subcontractor that employs the workers
The general contractor as the controlling employer, as well as each creating/exposing employer (Correct answer)
The project owner exclusively

Correct answer: The general contractor as the controlling employer, as well as each creating/exposing employer

OSHA's multi-employer citation policy holds the general contractor (controlling employer) and creating/exposing employers responsible for hazard compliance.

Question 92: As a rule of thumb, how much grade resistance does each 1% of adverse grade add for a haul unit?

40 lb per ton of gross weight
100 lb per ton of gross weight
10 lb per ton of gross weight
20 lb per ton of gross weight (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 20 lb per ton of gross weight

Each 1% of uphill grade adds about 20 lb of resistance per ton of gross vehicle weight.

Question 93: What is the most effective method of controlling a hazard according to the hierarchy of controls?

Engineering controls
Hazard elimination (Correct answer)
Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)
Administrative controls

Correct answer: Hazard elimination

According to the hierarchy of controls, hazard elimination is the most effective method for controlling hazards because it completely removes the hazard from the workplace. If a hazard cannot be eliminated, the next most effective methods are substitution, engineering controls, administrative controls, and finally, personal protective equipment (PPE). Eliminating the hazard prevents exposure entirely.

Question 94: What does the AIC's concept of 'stewardship' in professional practice primarily refer to?

Maintaining accurate project documentation for audit purposes
Responsible use of resources, including financial, human, and environmental resources (Correct answer)
Managing the owner's budget with strict cost controls
Delegating tasks appropriately to qualified subcontractors

Correct answer: Responsible use of resources, including financial, human, and environmental resources

Stewardship in AIC professional practice encompasses responsible management of all resources — financial, human, material, and environmental — entrusted to the constructor.

Question 95: When materials are delivered, what should the receiving person check first?

The invoice payment terms
The supplier's credit rating
The quantity and condition against the packing slip and purchase order (Correct answer)
The manufacturer's stock price

Correct answer: The quantity and condition against the packing slip and purchase order

Comparing deliveries to the packing slip and PO catches shortages, wrong items, and damage right away.

Question 96: What is the function of bentonite slurry when excavating a slurry (diaphragm) wall trench?

To waterproof the finished wall
To hold the trench walls stable by hydrostatic pressure until concrete is tremied in (Correct answer)
To accelerate concrete set
To lubricate the clamshell bucket

Correct answer: To hold the trench walls stable by hydrostatic pressure until concrete is tremied in

Slurry pressure and the filter cake it forms support the trench sides until tremie concrete displaces the slurry.

Question 97: Under the AIC Body of Knowledge, which document formally establishes the project baseline schedule?

The bid schedule submitted at tender
The schedule approved by the owner and incorporated into the contract (Correct answer)
The subcontractor's 2-week look-ahead
The contractor's internal Gantt chart

Correct answer: The schedule approved by the owner and incorporated into the contract

The baseline schedule is the owner-approved, contract-incorporated schedule against which all progress and changes are measured.

Question 98: Craft labor productivity in construction is BEST measured by:

The number of overtime hours worked
Actual units of work installed per labor-hour compared to the estimate (Correct answer)
Total wages paid compared to the project budget
The number of workers on site each day

Correct answer: Actual units of work installed per labor-hour compared to the estimate

Productivity is measured by comparing actual labor-hours per unit of work installed to the estimated standard, revealing efficiency gains or losses.

Question 99: Which statement best distinguishes quality assurance (QA) from quality control (QC) on a construction project?

QA focuses on planned processes that prevent defects, while QC inspects and tests the work to detect defects (Correct answer)
QA and QC are identical terms used interchangeably in all contracts
QA is performed only by the owner, while QC is performed only by the architect
QA applies only to materials, while QC applies only to labor

Correct answer: QA focuses on planned processes that prevent defects, while QC inspects and tests the work to detect defects

QA is process-oriented and preventive, while QC is product-oriented verification through inspection and testing.

Question 100: Under OSHA 29 CFR 1926.501, at what height must construction workers on walking/working surfaces with unprotected edges be protected from falls?

4 feet
6 feet (Correct answer)
10 feet
15 feet

Correct answer: 6 feet

OSHA construction standards require fall protection at 6 feet or more above a lower level.

Question 101: Which document lets the owner direct a change in the work before the owner and contractor agree on cost or time adjustment?

Request for Information
Change Order
Architect's Supplemental Instructions
Construction Change Directive (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Construction Change Directive

A Construction Change Directive (AIA G714) orders the change when agreement on adjustment has not yet been reached.

Question 102: The AIC defines 'professional competence' in construction as requiring:

Holding a bachelor's degree in construction management
Passing the AIC certification exam once and maintaining membership
Maintaining the skills and knowledge necessary to perform contracted services at an acceptable standard (Correct answer)
Completing at least 500 hours of field work annually

Correct answer: Maintaining the skills and knowledge necessary to perform contracted services at an acceptable standard

Professional competence requires ongoing maintenance of the skills, knowledge, and judgment necessary to deliver construction services to an acceptable standard.

Question 103: Which element is CRITICAL for maintaining proficiency in installation techniques & methods within American Institute of Constructors?

Initial certification alone without continuing education
Learning from informal sources without verification
Performing techniques only when absolutely necessary
Regular practice with ongoing professional development and skill updates (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Regular practice with ongoing professional development and skill updates

Maintaining proficiency requires regular practice combined with ongoing professional development to stay current with evolving best practices.

Question 104: How does the turn-of-nut method pretension high-strength bolts?

By shearing off a spline at the bolt tip
By rotating the nut a specified amount past the snug-tight condition (Correct answer)
By applying a calibrated torque measured with a torque wrench
By heating the bolt and letting it contract

Correct answer: By rotating the nut a specified amount past the snug-tight condition

Turn-of-nut controls tension through a specified nut rotation past snug-tight, often marked with match marks.

Question 105: A contractor needs a specialty excavator for only three weeks on a single project. Which option is usually most economical?

Purchase used equipment
Rent the equipment (Correct answer)
Purchase new equipment
Lease it for five years

Correct answer: Rent the equipment

For short, infrequent use, renting avoids ownership costs such as depreciation, storage, and financing.

Question 106: When learning new installation techniques & methods in American Institute of Constructors, which approach is MOST effective?

Combining theoretical study with supervised practical application (Correct answer)
Learning theory only without hands-on practice
Observing others without ever performing the techniques
Practicing without understanding underlying principles

Correct answer: Combining theoretical study with supervised practical application

The combination of theoretical knowledge and supervised practical application provides the deepest understanding and develops competent practitioners.

Question 107: Within how many hours must an employer report a work-related fatality to OSHA?

4 hours
72 hours
24 hours
8 hours (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 8 hours

Fatalities must be reported to OSHA within 8 hours of the employer learning of them.

Question 108: Under ASCE 7, what is the typical minimum uniformly distributed live load for office floors?

50 psf (Correct answer)
100 psf
40 psf
80 psf

Correct answer: 50 psf

ASCE 7 specifies 50 psf for office floors, with 80 psf for corridors above the first floor.

Question 109: Which NFPA standard covers safeguarding construction, alteration, and demolition operations?

NFPA 72
NFPA 25
NFPA 241 (Correct answer)
NFPA 80

Correct answer: NFPA 241

NFPA 241 covers fire safety during construction, alteration, and demolition.

Question 110: Under AIA A201, the architect may order which kind of change without the owner's or contractor's agreement?

Any change below $10,000
A change to the contract completion date
A change that adds cost but not time
A minor change consistent with the intent of the contract documents and with no change in sum or time (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A minor change consistent with the intent of the contract documents and with no change in sum or time

A201 §7.4 authorizes the architect to order minor changes that do not affect the Contract Sum or Time.

Question 111: Under OSHA 1910.178, how often must each powered industrial truck (forklift) operator's performance be evaluated, at minimum?

Every 5 years
Every 3 years (Correct answer)
Only after an accident
Every year

Correct answer: Every 3 years

Forklift operators must be evaluated at least once every three years.

Question 112: Which barrier MOST commonly hinders effective client communication & service in American Institute of Constructors?

Over-communicating important information
Providing too much context for messages
Lack of active listening and assumptions about understanding (Correct answer)
Using too many communication channels

Correct answer: Lack of active listening and assumptions about understanding

Failure to actively listen and making assumptions about understanding are the most common barriers to effective communication.

Question 113: When implementing materials & resource management changes in American Institute of Constructors, what factor is MOST critical?

Speed of implementation regardless of preparation
Stakeholder buy-in and a clear change management plan (Correct answer)
Minimizing communication about the changes
Top-down mandate without input from affected parties

Correct answer: Stakeholder buy-in and a clear change management plan

Stakeholder buy-in and a structured change management plan significantly increase the likelihood of successful implementation.

Question 114: Per ACI 318, what is the minimum concrete cover for reinforcement in concrete cast against and permanently exposed to earth?

3 in. (Correct answer)
2 in.
1-1/2 in.
4 in.

Correct answer: 3 in.

ACI 318 requires 3 in. of cover for concrete cast directly against and permanently exposed to earth.

Question 115: When a dispute arises between an AIC member and a client, the preferred ethical approach before pursuing litigation is to:

Issue a formal notice of claim and cease work pending resolution
Attempt resolution through negotiation, mediation, or other alternative dispute resolution methods (Correct answer)
File a mechanic's lien immediately to protect financial interests
Contact the client's bonding company for direct settlement

Correct answer: Attempt resolution through negotiation, mediation, or other alternative dispute resolution methods

Ethical professional practice favors resolving disputes through negotiation and alternative dispute resolution before resorting to litigation.

Question 116: Resource leveling within available float typically results in which outcome?

The project end date always gets shorter
The critical path activities are shortened
Peaks and valleys in resource demand are smoothed without extending the project (Correct answer)
Total project cost always increases

Correct answer: Peaks and valleys in resource demand are smoothed without extending the project

Leveling moves non-critical activities within their float to smooth resource use while keeping the completion date.

Question 117: Which standard is used to test and rate through-penetration firestop systems?

ASTM E84
ASTM E814 / UL 1479 (Correct answer)
NFPA 80
ASTM E119

Correct answer: ASTM E814 / UL 1479

ASTM E814 and UL 1479 test through-penetration firestops and assign F and T ratings.

Question 118: Which test is commonly used to verify the watertightness of a newly installed horizontal waterproofing membrane before it is covered?

Torque test
Proctor test
Flood test (Correct answer)
Slump test

Correct answer: Flood test

A flood test ponds water on the membrane for a specified period, typically 24-48 hours, to reveal leaks.

Question 119: Using standard 8x16-inch CMU (1.125 blocks per SF of wall), how many blocks are needed for a wall 100 ft long and 10 ft high, before waste?

1,250
900
1,125 (Correct answer)
1,000

Correct answer: 1,125

1,000 SF x 1.125 blocks/SF = 1,125 blocks.

Question 120: When a portable ladder is used to access an upper landing, how far must the side rails extend above the landing surface?

3 feet (Correct answer)
2 feet
4 feet
1 foot

Correct answer: 3 feet

OSHA 1926.1053 requires ladder side rails to extend at least 3 feet above the upper landing.

Question 121: What is the main purpose of a material expediting log?

To list approved change orders
To document safety inspections
To record worker hours
To track the procurement status and delivery dates of materials (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To track the procurement status and delivery dates of materials

An expediting log tracks orders, submittals, fabrication, and delivery dates so late materials get flagged early.

Question 122: How often do most U.S. jurisdictions require testable backflow prevention assemblies to be tested?

Every ten years
At least annually (Correct answer)
Only at installation
Every five years

Correct answer: At least annually

Most water purveyors and plumbing codes require testable backflow assemblies to be tested by a certified tester at least once a year.

Question 123: How many cubic yards of concrete are needed for a slab 60 ft by 40 ft by 6 inches thick, before waste?

44.4 CY (Correct answer)
88.9 CY
400 CY
133.3 CY

Correct answer: 44.4 CY

60 x 40 x 0.5 = 1,200 CF, and 1,200 / 27 = 44.4 CY.

Question 124: In American Institute of Constructors, which materials & resource management approach is MOST effective for achieving long-term goals?

Delegating all decisions without oversight
Strategic planning with measurable objectives and regular progress reviews (Correct answer)
Reactive management that addresses issues as they arise
Focusing solely on short-term financial targets

Correct answer: Strategic planning with measurable objectives and regular progress reviews

Strategic planning with measurable objectives and regular reviews provides direction, accountability, and the ability to adapt strategies based on progress.

Question 125: Which principle underlies the concept of 'responsible bidding' in construction ethics?

Always submitting the lowest possible bid to win work
Submitting multiple bids under different company names
Bidding only on projects for which the constructor is qualified and can perform competently (Correct answer)
Partnering with other firms to coordinate bid prices

Correct answer: Bidding only on projects for which the constructor is qualified and can perform competently

Responsible bidding requires that constructors only compete for work they have the qualifications, capacity, and resources to perform successfully.

Question 126: When conducting a safety protocols & compliance review in American Institute of Constructors, which approach yields the BEST results?

Focusing exclusively on equipment checks
Informal observation without documentation
Systematic analysis using established frameworks and checklists (Correct answer)
Reviewing only incidents from the past month

Correct answer: Systematic analysis using established frameworks and checklists

Systematic analysis using established frameworks ensures comprehensive coverage of all potential risks and provides consistent, reliable results.

Question 127: A client asks the contractor for advice that falls within the architect's design responsibility. What is the best response?

Share constructability input but direct design decisions to the architect of record (Correct answer)
Redesign the system yourself
Tell the client the architect is wrong
Refuse to discuss it

Correct answer: Share constructability input but direct design decisions to the architect of record

Contractors add value through constructability input while respecting the design professional's responsibility and liability.

Question 128: When must a competent person inspect an excavation and its protective systems?

Only at the start of the project and at substantial completion
Once per week and after each inspection by OSHA
Daily before work starts, as needed during the shift, and after rainstorms or other hazard-increasing events (Correct answer)
Only when the excavation exceeds 20 feet in depth

Correct answer: Daily before work starts, as needed during the shift, and after rainstorms or other hazard-increasing events

1926.651(k) requires daily inspections before work and after any occurrence that could increase hazards, such as rain.

Question 129: What is a liquidated damages clause designed to address in a construction contract?

Material supply shortages
Site security expenses
Project schedule delays (Correct answer)
Labor disputes

Correct answer: Project schedule delays

A liquidated damages clause in a construction contract specifies a predetermined amount of money that the contractor must pay the owner for each day the project is delayed beyond the agreed-upon completion date. This clause is designed to compensate the owner for losses incurred due to project delays, without the need to prove actual damages in court. It provides a clear financial consequence for failing to meet the schedule.

Question 130: A constructor who provides false information on a project progress report to the owner is violating which fundamental ethical principle?

Community responsibility
Honesty and integrity (Correct answer)
Professional competence
Sustainability

Correct answer: Honesty and integrity

Providing false information directly violates the core ethical principle of honesty and integrity that underpins all professional relationships.

Question 131: What is the primary purpose of AIA G703?

Listing schedule-of-values line items and progress for a payment application (Correct answer)
Releasing liens at final payment
Documenting a change order
Certifying substantial completion

Correct answer: Listing schedule-of-values line items and progress for a payment application

G703 is the continuation sheet to the G702 payment application; it details each schedule-of-values line.

Question 132: A project labor agreement (PLA) in construction typically:

Establishes pre-hire collective bargaining terms for all contractors on a specific project (Correct answer)
Is required only on projects under $1 million
Applies only to federal projects in right-to-work states
Prohibits all union labor on the project

Correct answer: Establishes pre-hire collective bargaining terms for all contractors on a specific project

A PLA is a pre-hire agreement that sets uniform labor terms — wages, hours, dispute resolution — for all contractors working on a specific project.

Question 133: In American Institute of Constructors, which factor MOST influences the selection of appropriate maintenance & repair procedures?

Personal preference of the practitioner
The specific requirements and constraints of the situation (Correct answer)
The most recently developed technique only
Cost as the sole determining factor

Correct answer: The specific requirements and constraints of the situation

The specific requirements and constraints of each situation should drive technique selection to ensure the most effective and appropriate approach.

Question 134: Under AIA A201, if the Architect rejects work that does not conform to the contract documents, who bears the cost of correcting it?

The Architect
The owner
The building official
The contractor (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The contractor

The contractor must promptly correct rejected work at its own expense, including added testing and compensation for design services.

Question 135: A construction contractor uses an 'open shop' labor arrangement, which means:

Workers are not required to be union members as a condition of employment (Correct answer)
The project is open to the public during construction
The shop drawings have been approved for construction
All workers must belong to the applicable trade union

Correct answer: Workers are not required to be union members as a condition of employment

Open shop (merit shop) contractors hire both union and non-union workers, with employment not conditioned on union membership.

Question 136: When a constructor becomes aware that a project's structural design may be deficient, the most ethically appropriate first step is to:

Stop all work and contact the local building department directly
Proceed with construction and document the concern in a daily log
Consult legal counsel before taking any action
Immediately notify the engineer of record and the owner in writing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediately notify the engineer of record and the owner in writing

Promptly notifying the engineer of record and owner in writing ensures the design professional can evaluate and resolve the concern before it becomes a safety hazard.

Question 137: What is the required height of the top rail of a guardrail system under OSHA 1926.502?

36 inches ± 3 inches
39 inches ± 3 inches
42 inches ± 3 inches (Correct answer)
48 inches ± 3 inches

Correct answer: 42 inches ± 3 inches

Top rails must be 42 inches, plus or minus 3 inches, above the walking/working level.

Question 138: Which metric BEST indicates successful materials & resource management in American Institute of Constructors?

Volume of emails sent
Number of meetings held per week
Achievement of defined key performance indicators and stakeholder satisfaction (Correct answer)
Hours worked by team members

Correct answer: Achievement of defined key performance indicators and stakeholder satisfaction

KPI achievement and stakeholder satisfaction directly measure whether management activities are producing desired outcomes.

Question 139: A Job Hazard Analysis (JHA) is best described as which process?

Breaking a task into steps, identifying hazards for each, and defining controls (Correct answer)
A calculation of the company's EMR
An annual audit of the company safety manual
A post-incident root cause investigation

Correct answer: Breaking a task into steps, identifying hazards for each, and defining controls

A JHA proactively reviews each step of a job to identify hazards and specify controls before work begins.

Question 140: Purchasing builder's risk insurance to cover potential fire damage during construction is an example of which risk response?

Mitigation
Acceptance
Avoidance
Transfer (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Transfer

Insurance shifts the financial consequence of a risk to a third party, which is risk transfer.

Question 141: Under A201-2017, how long is the general correction period after substantial completion during which the contractor must correct defective work?

6 months
Two years
90 days
One year (Correct answer)

Correct answer: One year

Section 12.2.2 sets a one-year correction period from substantial completion unless otherwise specified.

Question 142: Under ACI 318, concrete strength is acceptable when the average of any three consecutive tests equals or exceeds f'c and no individual test (for f'c of 5,000 psi or less) falls below f'c by more than how much?

250 psi
10% of f'c
1,000 psi
500 psi (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 500 psi

ACI 318 accepts strength when no single test is more than 500 psi below f'c for f'c of 5,000 psi or less.

Question 143: Which document certifies the date when the work is sufficiently complete for the owner to occupy or use it for its intended purpose?

Final Lien Waiver
Certificate of Occupancy
Certificate of Substantial Completion (Correct answer)
Notice to Proceed

Correct answer: Certificate of Substantial Completion

The Certificate of Substantial Completion (AIA G704) establishes that date and responsibilities for remaining items.

Question 144: In American Institute of Constructors, what is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting regular safety protocols & compliance assessments?

To identify potential hazards before incidents occur (Correct answer)
To satisfy insurance requirements only
To reduce operational costs
To increase employee workload

Correct answer: To identify potential hazards before incidents occur

Regular safety assessments are primarily conducted to proactively identify and mitigate potential hazards before they lead to incidents or injuries.

Question 145: A curtain wall system has a 20-week fabrication lead time after shop drawing approval. What should the constructor do first to protect the schedule?

Ask the owner to change to a different system
Delay the activity until the structure is topped out
Order the material immediately without approved shop drawings
Prioritize and expedite the shop drawing submittal and review cycle (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Prioritize and expedite the shop drawing submittal and review cycle

Long-lead items depend on approved submittals, so speeding up the submittal and review cycle protects the delivery date.

Question 146: An owner repeatedly calls the superintendent directly with design change requests. What is the best practice response?

Ignore the calls entirely
Courteously route the requests through the formal change process and project manager (Correct answer)
Implement changes immediately to keep the owner happy
Charge a fee for each phone call

Correct answer: Courteously route the requests through the formal change process and project manager

Routing changes through the formal process protects scope, cost, and schedule while keeping the client relationship positive.

Question 147: On construction sites, 120-volt, single-phase, 15- and 20-amp receptacle outlets that are not part of permanent wiring must be protected by GFCIs or by what alternative?

An assured equipment grounding conductor program (Correct answer)
Arc-flash rated PPE
Lockout/tagout procedures
Double-insulated tools only

Correct answer: An assured equipment grounding conductor program

1926.404(b)(1) allows either GFCIs or an assured equipment grounding conductor program for temporary wiring.

Question 148: When crashing a schedule, which activity should normally be shortened first?

Any activity with a Start-to-Start link
The critical activity with the longest duration
The non-critical activity with the most float
The critical activity with the lowest cost slope (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The critical activity with the lowest cost slope

The most economical approach crashes the critical activity with the lowest cost per day saved first.

Question 149: At what age are concrete cylinders most commonly tested to verify specified compressive strength (f'c)?

28 days (Correct answer)
7 days
3 days
90 days

Correct answer: 28 days

Specified compressive strength is typically evaluated at 28 days unless the specs state otherwise.

Question 150: What is the main goal of a formal partnering session at project start?

To finalize the punch list
To replace the contract with a handshake
To negotiate lower subcontractor prices
To align stakeholders on goals, communication protocols, and issue-resolution processes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To align stakeholders on goals, communication protocols, and issue-resolution processes

Partnering builds shared goals and an escalation ladder so issues are resolved at the lowest level quickly.

Question 151: In American Institute of Constructors, which factor MOST influences the selection of appropriate installation techniques & methods?

The most recently developed technique only
The specific requirements and constraints of the situation (Correct answer)
Cost as the sole determining factor
Personal preference of the practitioner

Correct answer: The specific requirements and constraints of the situation

The specific requirements and constraints of each situation should drive technique selection to ensure the most effective and appropriate approach.

Associate Constructor (AC) Exam

This exam certifies entry-level knowledge and skills in construction management, covering fundamental principles and practices.

150

Questions

240 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

Checking for saved progress...

Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
Flag questions for review before submitting
No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds

These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

aic-builds.org — Test delivery, late registration, test dates, renewal, eligibility, fees, exam format, time limit, exam information · verified Oct 2026