AEMCA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield AEMCA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which two laws help you comprehend decompression sickness? → Boyle law and Henry law
2. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for administering oxytocin in the management of postpartum hemorrhage? → The placenta has not yet been delivered.
3. What is the Parkland formula used for in burn management? → Calculating fluid resuscitation volumes in the first 24 hours
4. Which of the following defines a hypertensive emergency, distinguishing it from hypertensive urgency? → The presence of acute end-organ damage.
5. When administering dopamine at 10-20 mcg/kg/min, the predominant clinical effect is: → Alpha-adrenergic vasoconstriction
6. Which metabolic condition causes Kussmaul respirations as a compensatory mechanism? → Diabetic ketoacidosis
7. Which finding BEST differentiates placental abruption from placenta previa in a third-trimester patient? → Painful, dark red bleeding with a rigid abdomen
8. Which ethical principle obligates the AEMCA to avoid causing harm to the patient? → Non-maleficence
9. A patient presents with sudden severe headache described as 'the worst of my life,' neck stiffness, and photophobia. What should the AEMCA suspect? → Subarachnoid hemorrhage
10. The 'golden hour' concept in trauma care was popularized by which physician? → R Adams Cowley
11. A patient with severe anaphylaxis develops stridor and a hoarse voice. What airway complication is most likely developing? → Upper airway edema and impending obstruction
12. When an AEMCA responds to a crime scene, which action is most appropriate regarding evidence preservation? → Document and disturb the scene as little as clinically necessary
13. The reassessment interval for an unstable critical patient during transport should be performed every: → 5 minutes
14. A patient has ingested a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose. What is the most dangerous immediate complication? → Cardiac dysrhythmias from sodium channel blockade
15. What is the loop diuretics' mode of action? → Inhibits sodium and potassium re-absorption at the thick ascending limb of henle
16. A patient presents with pinpoint pupils, decreased respirations, and altered mental status. Which class of drugs is most likely responsible? → Opioids
17. Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator that BVM ventilations are effective? → Chest rise is visible with each breath
18. You are treating a patient with blunt abdominal trauma who is hypotensive. Which organ is statistically most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma? → Spleen
19. When performing end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) monitoring after intubation, a reading of 20 mmHg in a cardiac arrest patient with good CPR quality suggests: → Possible pulmonary embolism causing reduced pulmonary blood flow
20. During an MCI, the SALT triage method's first step is to: → Sort patients by asking ambulatory patients to move to a designated area
21. A neonate's APGAR score is assessed at 1 minute. Which component is NOT part of the APGAR scoring system? → Blood glucose level
22. When involved in an ambulance collision while responding to an emergency, the EMT should FIRST: → Ensure personal safety, then assess crew and patient for injuries
23. What is the approximate volume of blood in the average adult human body? → 5 liters
24. When selecting an OPA size, the correct method is to measure from the: → Corner of the mouth to the earlobe
25. When staging at a hazmat scene, EMS should position upwind and uphill because: → It minimizes exposure to chemical vapors and runoff
26. Under federal EMTALA regulations, hospital emergency departments must: → Provide a medical screening exam to all patients presenting to the ED
27. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-rescuer pediatric CPR? → 15:2
28. Which finding differentiates hypertensive emergency from hypertensive urgency? → Presence of end-organ damage
29. A patient receives succinylcholine for RSI. Which condition is a relative contraindication due to risk of life-threatening hyperkalemia? → Burns more than 72 hours old
30. A patient with COPD is found with a decreased level of consciousness and a SpO2 of 72%. The AEMCA should: → Apply high-flow oxygen and be prepared to assist ventilations