Addiction Medicine Certification Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Addiction Medicine Certification facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which of the following situations represents a boundary violation rather than a boundary crossing in addiction medicine practice? → Entering into a business partnership with a patient in recovery
2. What differentiates active from inactive records in Addiction Medicine Certification? → Active are regularly referenced; inactive are retained but rarely accessed
3. Which pharmacological agent is FDA-approved for preventing relapse specifically in alcohol use disorder by reducing craving through glutamate modulation? → Acamprosate
4. Which core process in Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT) for addiction encourages patients to observe thoughts without fusion or avoidance? → Cognitive defusion
5. A patient in methadone maintenance treatment requests a take-home dose. Which federal regulation governs the criteria for take-home privileges? → SAMHSA/CSAT federal opioid treatment program regulations (42 CFR Part 8)
6. What is the primary mechanism by which contingency management improves abstinence rates in stimulant use disorder? → Operant conditioning through positive reinforcement of abstinence
7. What neuroadaptation to repeated drug exposure is the primary basis of tolerance? → Downregulation of dopamine receptors
8. A patient on buprenorphine maintenance presents with severe chest pain, diaphoresis, and an irregular pulse. What is the FIRST priority? → Call 911 and initiate cardiac emergency protocols
9. Which medication is used as an aversive agent for alcohol use disorder? → Disulfiram
10. Which of the following is a DSM-5 criterion for Alcohol Use Disorder specifically related to time investment? → Spending a great deal of time obtaining, using, or recovering from alcohol
11. Which tool is most appropriate for assessing readiness to change in a patient who has just experienced an alcohol-related legal consequence? → URICA (University of Rhode Island Change Assessment)
12. A court orders you to release a patient's SUD treatment records as part of a criminal investigation. What is the most appropriate action under 42 CFR Part 2? → Comply only if the court order meets the specific criteria required under 42 CFR Part 2
13. When documenting a patient's refusal of recommended treatment in addiction medicine, the clinician should record: → The refusal, information provided about risks, and the patient's stated reasons
14. What role do support groups play in recovery? → Provide peer support and accountability
15. A patient with opioid use disorder is being evaluated for buprenorphine initiation. Which COWS score range best indicates readiness to begin induction? → 13–24 (moderate withdrawal)
16. Which benzodiazepine is preferred for alcohol withdrawal management in patients with severe hepatic impairment due to its lack of active metabolites? → Lorazepam
17. Which of the following findings in a patient's medical record most strongly supports a diagnosis of severe opioid use disorder per DSM-5? → Documentation of 6 or more diagnostic criteria within a 12-month period
18. Which of the following best describes a 'continued stay review' document in an addiction medicine residential program? → Clinical justification for ongoing inpatient treatment meeting medical necessity criteria
19. Why is it important to assess co-occurring mental health conditions? → To tailor treatment to the patient’s full needs
20. Which of the following statements about methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct in the context of injection drug use? → Vancomycin is a first-line treatment for serious MRSA infections
21. Which neurotransmitter system is most implicated in the link between cocaine use disorder and depression? → Dopamine
22. How does professional liability insurance protect Addiction Medicine Certification practitioners? → Covering financial losses from claims of negligence or errors
23. The T-ACE screening tool was specifically designed and validated for detecting risky alcohol use in which population? → Pregnant women
24. Which benzodiazepine property makes long-acting agents preferred over short-acting agents for managing alcohol withdrawal in most clinical settings? → Self-tapering pharmacokinetics reduce rebound and seizure risk
25. Which component of the ASAM assessment evaluates a patient's level of support from family, friends, and the community environment for recovery? → Dimension 6: Recovery/Living Environment
26. When documenting DSM-5 severity for cannabis use disorder, moderate severity requires meeting how many criteria? → 4–5 criteria
27. Which element is NOT typically required in an individualized treatment plan for a patient with alcohol use disorder? → The patient's social security number
28. Epigenetic changes in addiction refer to: → Heritable changes in gene expression without alteration of the underlying DNA sequence
29. In screening older adults for alcohol misuse, which tool is specifically recommended due to its age-appropriate questions? → SMAST-G
30. Which of the following best explains the 'self-medication hypothesis' in the context of dual diagnosis? → Patients use substances to alleviate distressing psychiatric symptoms