Acute Care Nurse Practitioner Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Acute Care Nurse Practitioner facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which of the following patients would most likely benefit from exposure therapy guided by the therapist? → A patient with a specific phobia
2. The quick SOFA (qSOFA) score is a bedside screening tool for sepsis risk. Which three parameters comprise the qSOFA score? → Altered mental status, respiratory rate ≥ 22 breaths/min, systolic BP ≤ 100 mmHg
3. Which ventilator mode delivers a set tidal volume regardless of patient effort or airway resistance? → Volume control ventilation (VCV)
4. Please indicate which of the following is not an illustration of a task that a nurse practitioner may delegate to a nursing assistant. → Assessing a patient's signs and symptoms
5. Which formula correctly calculates systemic vascular resistance (SVR)? → (MAP - CVP) / CO × 80
6. Status epilepticus (SE) is defined as continuous seizure activity lasting longer than how many minutes? → 5 minutes
7. Which condition is MOST likely to cause a false elevation in serum creatinine without true reduction in GFR? → Trimethoprim use
8. Which urinalysis finding MOST suggests intrinsic renal AKI (acute tubular necrosis)? → Muddy brown granular casts
9. Rhabdomyolysis-induced AKI is BEST prevented by which intervention? → Aggressive IV fluid resuscitation with normal saline
10. Which intervention is indicated for a patient in third-degree (complete) AV block with a ventricular rate of 28 bpm and hypotension? → Administer atropine 0.5 mg IV and prepare for transvenous pacing
11. What tidal volume is recommended for lung-protective ventilation in ARDS per the ARDSNet protocol? → 6–8 mL/kg predicted body weight
12. Which of the following statements regarding ACE inhibitors, the angiotensin-converting enzyme, is true? → The patient can make up for a skipped dose by taking one as soon as he/she remembers
13. A patient on vasopressors has digital ischemia developing in multiple extremities. Which intervention is MOST appropriate? → Wean vasopressors to the lowest effective dose and consider phentolamine
14. The Cerebral Spinal Fluid's (CSF) major purpose is to... → providing mechanical protection to the brain and the spinal cord.
15. The patient has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Please specify the right course of action in this situation. → The patient receives an insulin dose
16. According to KDIGO criteria, which finding defines Stage 1 AKI? → Creatinine increase ≥0.3 mg/dL within 48 hours
17. Which finding on CT scan of the head indicates a subdural hematoma rather than an epidural hematoma? → Crescent-shaped hyperdense collection crossing suture lines
18. Which agent is the preferred sedative for mechanically ventilated ICU patients due to ease of titration and ability to reduce ventilator days? → Propofol
19. A patient receiving norepinephrine has an SVR of 1,800 dynes/s/cm⁻⁵ and MAP of 92 mmHg, but urine output is 15 mL/hr. What is the MOST appropriate next step? → Start dobutamine
20. An arterial blood gas from a patient in septic shock shows: pH 7.15, PaCO₂ 28 mmHg, HCO₃ 10 mEq/L, lactate 6 mmol/L. What is the correct interpretation? → High anion gap metabolic acidosis with appropriate respiratory compensation
21. Which finding is MOST consistent with brain death on clinical examination? → Absent pupillary light reflexes bilaterally
22. Aortic dissection (Type A) presents with which classic clinical finding? → Sudden severe tearing/ripping chest pain radiating to the back with unequal arm BPs
23. A patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) develops worsening neurological deficits on day 5. Which complication should the ACNP suspect? → Cerebral vasospasm
24. When interpreting a CVP waveform, prominent 'v' waves are associated with which condition? → Tricuspid regurgitation
25. An ACNP wants to contrast-enhance a CT scan in a patient with eGFR 28 mL/min. Which is the MOST evidence-based preventive strategy? → Ensure adequate IV hydration with isotonic saline before/after
26. According to current Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines, packed red blood cells should be transfused in septic shock when hemoglobin falls below: → 7 g/dL in adults without active myocardial ischemia, severe hypoxemia, or acute hemorrhage
27. Which hemodynamic parameter best reflects left ventricular preload? → Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure
28. Which vasopressor is recommended as first-line therapy for septic shock to maintain mean arterial pressure ≥ 65 mmHg? → Norepinephrine at 0.01-3 mcg/kg/min
29. A patient develops torsades de pointes (TdP). Which intervention is MOST appropriate as immediate treatment? → IV magnesium sulfate 2 g
30. A patient with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) has an SpO₂ of 85% on room air and BP 150/90. Which is the MOST appropriate initial intervention? → Administer IV furosemide and apply NIPPV (BiPAP)