AHA Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support (ACLS) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A patient in pulseless VT is refractory after two defibrillation attempts. What is the recommended next action regarding energy?

Decrease the energy by 50 J with each subsequent attempt
Continue at the same energy level for all subsequent shocks
Use manufacturer-recommended escalating doses or maximum dose for subsequent shocks (Correct answer)
Switch to synchronized cardioversion for the next attempt

Correct answer: Use manufacturer-recommended escalating doses or maximum dose for subsequent shocks

For refractory VF/pVT, subsequent shocks should use manufacturer-recommended escalating energy or the maximum device dose to improve defibrillation success.

Question 2: When placing defibrillator pads on a patient with an implanted pacemaker or ICD, how should the pads be positioned?

The device must be deactivated before defibrillation
At least 1 inch (2.5 cm) away from the implanted device (Correct answer)
Only posterior pad placement should be used
Directly over the implanted device for best conduction

Correct answer: At least 1 inch (2.5 cm) away from the implanted device

Pads should be placed at least 1 inch (2.5 cm) from the implanted device to avoid energy shunting and damage to the device or myocardium.

Question 3: Which condition requires immediate unsynchronized defibrillation rather than synchronized cardioversion?

Polymorphic VT (irregular) with a pulse and hemodynamic instability (Correct answer)
Supraventricular tachycardia with hypotension
Regular monomorphic VT with a pulse and hypotension
Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response

Correct answer: Polymorphic VT (irregular) with a pulse and hemodynamic instability

Polymorphic VT is treated like VF with unsynchronized high-energy shocks because the irregular rhythm makes synchronization difficult and dangerous.

Question 4: A patient stabilized after NSTEMI is being discharged. Which long-term medication has been proven to reduce recurrent MI and cardiovascular mortality regardless of LDL level?

Bile acid sequestrant
High-intensity statin therapy (Correct answer)
Niacin supplementation
Fibrate therapy

Correct answer: High-intensity statin therapy

High-intensity statin therapy (atorvastatin 40–80 mg or rosuvastatin 20–40 mg) is recommended for all ACS patients regardless of baseline LDL level.

Question 5: A 55-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of the 'worst headache of my life.' CT head is normal. What is the next diagnostic step?

Reassure and discharge with follow-up
MRI brain with DWI
Lumbar puncture to detect xanthochromia (Correct answer)
CT angiography only

Correct answer: Lumbar puncture to detect xanthochromia

A normal CT does not exclude subarachnoid hemorrhage; lumbar puncture should be performed to detect xanthochromia when SAH is suspected.

Question 6: What should a rescuer do if a flat capnography waveform is observed after intubation?

Increase ventilation rate
Recheck pulse and continue monitoring
Administer epinephrine and continue CPR
Assume esophageal intubation and remove the tube immediately (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Assume esophageal intubation and remove the tube immediately

A persistently flat capnography waveform after intubation strongly suggests esophageal placement; the tube must be immediately removed and the patient re-oxygenated.

Question 7: What oxygen saturation target should be maintained in acute ischemic stroke patients without hypoxia?

SpO₂ > 80%; avoid O₂ to prevent vasoconstriction
SpO₂ > 94%; do not give supplemental O₂ if already ≥ 94% (Correct answer)
SpO₂ > 88%; permissive hypoxia is acceptable
SpO₂ 100%; always provide high-flow O₂

Correct answer: SpO₂ > 94%; do not give supplemental O₂ if already ≥ 94%

Supplemental oxygen is indicated only if SpO₂ < 94%; routine hyperoxia provides no benefit and may be harmful.

Question 8: Which of the following statements about transcutaneous pacing (TCP) is correct?

TCP is contraindicated in third-degree heart block
TCP should be attempted before atropine in unstable bradycardia
TCP is painless for conscious patients
TCP should be used while awaiting transvenous pacing for unstable bradycardia (Correct answer)

Correct answer: TCP should be used while awaiting transvenous pacing for unstable bradycardia

TCP is a temporizing measure for unstable bradycardia while definitive transvenous pacing is arranged.

Question 9: A patient converts from SVT to sinus rhythm after adenosine but develops a brief period of asystole lasting 6 seconds. What is the correct response?

Begin CPR
Perform synchronized cardioversion
Reassure the patient — this is an expected, transient effect of adenosine (Correct answer)
Immediately administer atropine 1 mg IV

Correct answer: Reassure the patient — this is an expected, transient effect of adenosine

Brief asystole after adenosine is expected due to its transient AV nodal blockade and typically resolves spontaneously within seconds.

Question 10: A stroke patient receiving IV alteplase develops sudden severe headache, hypertension, and neurological deterioration 45 minutes into the infusion. What is the immediate action?

Administer labetalol and continue infusion
Give cryoprecipitate and continue monitoring
Increase the infusion rate to complete the dose faster
Stop the infusion and obtain emergent CT head (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Stop the infusion and obtain emergent CT head

Symptomatic intracranial hemorrhage must be suspected; the tPA infusion should be stopped immediately and emergent CT obtained.

Question 11: What is the correct dose of lidocaine for pulseless VT/VF when amiodarone is unavailable?

0.5 mg/kg IV push
1–1.5 mg/kg IV push (Correct answer)
3 mg/kg IV push
2–3 mg/kg IV push

Correct answer: 1–1.5 mg/kg IV push

Lidocaine is dosed at 1–1.5 mg/kg IV push as an alternative to amiodarone for pulseless VT/VF.

Question 12: The cricoid pressure (Sellick maneuver) during intubation is currently:

Required only in pediatric patients
Mandatory for all emergency intubations per AHA guidelines
Proven to prevent aspiration in all patients
Not routinely recommended as it may worsen laryngeal view (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Not routinely recommended as it may worsen laryngeal view

Routine cricoid pressure is not recommended because evidence shows it may impair laryngeal visualization and does not reliably prevent aspiration.

Question 13: You are part of a resuscitation team. To ensure high-quality CPR is being delivered, which metric is most accurately monitored using quantitative waveform capnography?

Correct hand placement on the sternum.
Chest compression depth.
Effectiveness of chest compressions and potential ROSC. (Correct answer)
Arterial blood pressure.

Correct answer: Effectiveness of chest compressions and potential ROSC.

Quantitative waveform capnography measures end-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2). During CPR, ETCO2 values can indicate the quality of chest compressions (a value <10 mmHg suggests compressions may be inadequate). A sudden, sustained increase in ETCO2 is a strong indicator of Return of Spontaneous Circulation (ROSC).

Question 14: Which of the following is a key component of high-quality CPR that directly impacts coronary perfusion pressure?

Achieving a chest compression fraction of at least 80%. (Correct answer)
Checking for a pulse for at least 15 seconds.
Providing ventilations every 10 seconds.
Using a compression depth of at least 3 inches.

Correct answer: Achieving a chest compression fraction of at least 80%.

Chest compression fraction is the proportion of time that chest compressions are being performed during a cardiac arrest. Minimizing interruptions and maximizing this fraction (to at least 80%) is crucial for maintaining adequate coronary perfusion pressure and increasing the chances of ROSC.

Question 15: A patient develops torsades de pointes. Which treatment is specifically indicated for this arrhythmia?

Amiodarone 300 mg IV
Adenosine 6 mg IV push
Magnesium sulfate 1–2 g IV (Correct answer)
Atropine 0.5 mg IV

Correct answer: Magnesium sulfate 1–2 g IV

Magnesium sulfate is the treatment of choice for torsades de pointes, which is often associated with hypomagnesemia or QT prolongation.

Question 16: The demand rate for transcutaneous pacing ought to be set at:

Not exceeding 60/min
Began at 60-80/min and adjusted dependent on the clinical outcome. (Correct answer)
Started at 80/min and increased or decreased based on the clinical outcome.
Began at 100/min and decreased to the bare minimum for clinical response.

Correct answer: Began at 60-80/min and adjusted dependent on the clinical outcome.

For transcutaneous pacing, the initial demand rate should typically be set between 60-80 beats per minute. This range is generally sufficient to improve cardiac output and alleviate symptoms of bradycardia. The rate should then be adjusted based on the patient's clinical response, aiming for the lowest effective rate that resolves symptoms and maintains adequate perfusion.

Question 17: In ACLS, passive oxygenation during CPR refers to which technique?

Placing a non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min on an intubated patient without active ventilation
Allowing the chest recoil to passively draw in oxygen-enriched air through an open airway (Correct answer)
Delivering oxygen via nasal cannula during chest compressions without bag-mask ventilation
Giving supplemental O₂ between compression cycles only

Correct answer: Allowing the chest recoil to passively draw in oxygen-enriched air through an open airway

Passive oxygenation during CPR uses chest recoil to draw oxygen-enriched air into the lungs through an open airway without active positive-pressure ventilation.

Question 18: During two-rescuer bag-mask ventilation, how should the mask be held?

The mask is placed loosely over the face
One rescuer uses both hands in E-C clamp technique to seal mask; second rescuer squeezes bag (Correct answer)
One rescuer holds the mask with one hand, the other holds the jaw
Both rescuers squeeze the bag simultaneously

Correct answer: One rescuer uses both hands in E-C clamp technique to seal mask; second rescuer squeezes bag

In two-rescuer BVM, the first rescuer uses the E-C clamp with both hands for an effective mask seal while the second rescuer squeezes the bag.

Question 19: A 45-year-old collapses. You find no pulse after 10 seconds of checking. What is your FIRST action?

Open the airway and give 2 rescue breaths
Begin chest compressions (Correct answer)
Call for help and wait for EMS
Apply the AED and analyze rhythm

Correct answer: Begin chest compressions

Chest compressions should be started immediately upon confirming pulselessness; CPR begins with compressions (C-A-B sequence).

Question 20: During treatment of stable monomorphic VT, amiodarone is selected. What is the correct dosing?

1 mg/min continuous infusion only
500 mg oral loading dose
300 mg IV push followed by 150 mg in 3–5 minutes
150 mg IV over 10 minutes, then 1 mg/min for 6 hours (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 150 mg IV over 10 minutes, then 1 mg/min for 6 hours

For stable monomorphic VT, amiodarone is given as 150 mg IV over 10 minutes followed by a 1 mg/min maintenance infusion.

Question 21: A patient presents with atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response at 145 bpm, BP 88/60. What is the most appropriate next step?

Rhythm control with oral flecainide
Synchronized cardioversion (Correct answer)
Anticoagulation with heparin
Rate control with diltiazem IV

Correct answer: Synchronized cardioversion

Hemodynamically unstable atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response requires immediate synchronized cardioversion.

Question 22: Which blood pressure threshold must be achieved and maintained BEFORE administering IV alteplase for acute ischemic stroke?

< 220/120 mmHg
< 160/90 mmHg
< 140/80 mmHg
< 185/110 mmHg (Correct answer)

Correct answer: < 185/110 mmHg

BP must be < 185/110 mmHg before alteplase administration and maintained < 180/105 mmHg for at least 24 hours afterward.

Question 23: What is the purpose of end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) monitoring during cardiac arrest?

To measure oxygen saturation
To determine when to terminate resuscitation only
To confirm correct endotracheal tube placement and assess CPR quality (Correct answer)
To guide epinephrine dosing

Correct answer: To confirm correct endotracheal tube placement and assess CPR quality

ETCO2 confirms ETT placement and reflects cardiac output during CPR — values above 10 mmHg suggest effective compressions.

Question 24: An ETCO2 monitor is attached to a patient receiving CPR. The reading is 42 mmHg. What does this most likely indicate?

Return of spontaneous circulation (Correct answer)
Excellent but not yet sufficient CPR
Hyperventilation by the rescuer
Equipment malfunction

Correct answer: Return of spontaneous circulation

An abrupt rise in ETCO2 to normal physiologic levels (35–45 mmHg) during CPR is a reliable indicator of ROSC.

Question 25: A patient in cardiac arrest has a continuous waveform capnography reading of 8 mmHg despite ongoing CPR. What does this indicate?

The patient has ROSC
CPR quality is poor and should be improved (Correct answer)
CPR quality is adequate
The patient is hyperventilated

Correct answer: CPR quality is poor and should be improved

ETCO2 below 10 mmHg during CPR indicates poor cardiac output and signals the need to improve compression quality.

Question 26: After placement of an advanced airway during CPR, what is the recommended ventilation rate?

2 breaths every 30 compressions
1 breath every 2 seconds (30 breaths/min)
1 breath every 3 seconds (20 breaths/min)
1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths/min) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths/min)

Once an advanced airway is in place, deliver asynchronous ventilations at a rate of 10 breaths per minute (one breath every 6 seconds).

Question 27: During a cardiac arrest resuscitation, when should the team consider stopping CPR efforts?

After 10 minutes without ROSC
Based on clinical judgment, ETCO2 trends, and reversible causes being addressed (Correct answer)
After 20 minutes without ROSC in any circumstance
Only when a physician verbally calls the code

Correct answer: Based on clinical judgment, ETCO2 trends, and reversible causes being addressed

The decision to stop CPR is based on clinical factors including ETCO2 trends, reversible causes (H's and T's), rhythm, and team assessment — not a fixed time.

Question 28: During a resuscitation attempt, the team leader observes the compressor is delivering chest compressions at a rate of 90 per minute. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

Recommend a compression depth of 1.5 inches.
Instruct the compressor to increase the rate to 100-120 per minute. (Correct answer)
Continue current practice as the rate is adequate.
Immediately switch compressors without providing feedback.

Correct answer: Instruct the compressor to increase the rate to 100-120 per minute.

The American Heart Association guidelines for high-quality CPR state that the chest compression rate should be between 100 and 120 per minute. A rate of 90 is too slow and will not provide adequate circulation. The team leader should provide immediate, constructive feedback to correct the rate.

Question 29: A patient is eligible for IV tPA. The dose of alteplase for acute ischemic stroke is:

0.6 mg/kg IV, max 60 mg
0.9 mg/kg IV, max 90 mg (Correct answer)
0.9 mg/kg IV, max 80 mg
1.1 mg/kg IV, max 110 mg

Correct answer: 0.9 mg/kg IV, max 90 mg

The standard dose is 0.9 mg/kg (maximum 90 mg), with 10% given as an IV bolus over 1 minute and the remainder over 60 minutes.

Question 30: What is the preferred initial airway adjunct for an unconscious adult patient who lacks a gag reflex during ACLS?

Laryngeal mask airway
Endotracheal tube
Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
Oropharyngeal airway (OPA) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)

An oropharyngeal airway (OPA) is the preferred initial airway adjunct for unconscious patients without a gag reflex to maintain airway patency.

Question 31: Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the 'C-A-B' sequence in CPR?

Assessing breathing before pulse check to save time
Confirming airway patency before initiating compressions
Prioritizing chest compressions over airway and breathing to restore circulation faster (Correct answer)
Checking responsiveness before calling for help

Correct answer: Prioritizing chest compressions over airway and breathing to restore circulation faster

The C-A-B sequence ensures compressions start immediately to restore circulation rather than delaying for airway management.

Question 32: A patient has a heart rate of 44 bpm with a BP of 80/50 mmHg. Atropine 1 mg IV is given with no improvement. Transcutaneous pacing is initiated but the patient remains hemodynamically unstable despite capture. What is the next step?

Arrange transvenous pacing (Correct answer)
Administer amiodarone 300 mg IV
Perform defibrillation
Give a second dose of atropine 3 mg IV bolus

Correct answer: Arrange transvenous pacing

Transvenous pacing provides more reliable and definitive pacing for patients who remain unstable despite transcutaneous pacing.

Question 33: Which of the following is the most appropriate indication for initiating Targeted Temperature Management (TTM) in a patient who has achieved ROSC?

The patient had a cardiac arrest with an initial rhythm of asystole.
The patient has a history of neurological disease.
The patient is awake and following commands but has a fever.
The patient is comatose and not following verbal commands. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The patient is comatose and not following verbal commands.

Targeted Temperature Management (TTM) is indicated for adult patients who remain comatose (i.e., do not follow verbal commands) after achieving ROSC, regardless of the initial rhythm. The goal of TTM is to improve neurological outcomes by preventing fever and reducing cerebral metabolic demand.

Question 34: Which of the following best describes the correct hand placement for external chest compressions in an adult?

Two fingers above the xiphoid process
Upper sternum between the clavicles
Left lateral chest wall over the heart
Center of the chest on the lower half of the sternum (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Center of the chest on the lower half of the sternum

Compressions are placed at the center of the chest on the lower half of the sternum to maximize cardiac output.

Question 35: What is the recommended depth of chest compressions for an infant during CPR?

At least 2 inches
At least 2.5 inches
At least 1 inch
At least 1.5 inches or approximately 1/3 the depth of the chest (Correct answer)

Correct answer: At least 1.5 inches or approximately 1/3 the depth of the chest

For infants, compressions should be at least 1.5 inches or approximately one-third the anterior-posterior chest diameter.

Question 36: A nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) is contraindicated in which situation?

Patient with an intact gag reflex
Suspected basilar skull fracture (Correct answer)
Patient with nasal congestion
Unconscious trauma patient

Correct answer: Suspected basilar skull fracture

A nasopharyngeal airway is contraindicated in suspected basilar skull fracture due to risk of intracranial placement.

Question 37: For a suspected stroke patient in the ED, what is the AHA target time from door to CT interpretation?

45 minutes
60 minutes
25 minutes (Correct answer)
15 minutes

Correct answer: 25 minutes

The AHA/ASA guidelines recommend CT interpretation within 25 minutes of ED arrival to facilitate rapid tPA decision-making.

Question 38: If atropine is ineffective in treating a patient with symptomatic bradycardia and poor perfusion, which of the following are the appropriate next-line treatment options according to the ACLS algorithm?

Immediate synchronized cardioversion.
Administer a fluid bolus and reassess.
Transcutaneous pacing or an infusion of dopamine or epinephrine. (Correct answer)
Wait 10 minutes and administer another dose of atropine.

Correct answer: Transcutaneous pacing or an infusion of dopamine or epinephrine.

When atropine fails to resolve symptomatic bradycardia, the ACLS algorithm directs providers to consider second-line therapies. These include transcutaneous pacing (TCP) or initiating an IV infusion of a chronotropic agent like dopamine (5-20 mcg/kg/min) or epinephrine (2-10 mcg/min).

Question 39: A patient with known WPW syndrome presents with atrial fibrillation at 220 bpm. Which drug is contraindicated?

Adenosine (Correct answer)
Ibutilide
Procainamide
Electrical cardioversion

Correct answer: Adenosine

Adenosine blocks the AV node but can promote conduction down the accessory pathway in WPW, potentially accelerating the ventricular rate and causing VF.

Question 40: A patient with acute stroke has blood glucose of 35 mg/dL. What is the appropriate management?

Administer IV tPA first, then treat hypoglycemia
Treat hypoglycemia with IV dextrose; reassess neurological status after normalization (Correct answer)
Assume stroke is the cause and proceed with stroke protocol only
Give glucagon IM and proceed with tPA

Correct answer: Treat hypoglycemia with IV dextrose; reassess neurological status after normalization

Hypoglycemia (glucose < 50–60 mg/dL) mimics stroke and must be corrected immediately before attributing symptoms to ischemic stroke.

Question 41: A patient with acute ischemic stroke is on a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC). When can IV tPA be safely administered?

Only if specific reversal agent was administered and coagulation assays are normal (Correct answer)
Never; DOACs are an absolute contraindication regardless of timing
Any time if the last DOAC dose was > 12 hours ago
Immediately if clinical need is high

Correct answer: Only if specific reversal agent was administered and coagulation assays are normal

IV tPA may be considered after DOAC reversal (e.g., idarucizumab for dabigatran) with confirmation that coagulation tests are normal.

Question 42: A patient presents with ACS and is found to have a history of prior intracranial hemorrhage. Which antiplatelet agent should be AVOIDED?

Ticagrelor
Aspirin 81 mg
Prasugrel (Correct answer)
Clopidogrel

Correct answer: Prasugrel

Prasugrel is contraindicated in patients with a history of stroke or TIA due to significantly increased risk of intracranial hemorrhage.

Question 43: Which energy setting is recommended for synchronized cardioversion of atrial flutter?

360 J
50–100 J (Correct answer)
120–200 J
200 J

Correct answer: 50–100 J

Atrial flutter typically responds to lower energy levels (50–100 J) for synchronized cardioversion compared to atrial fibrillation.

Question 44: A patient with symptomatic bradycardia has a known transplanted heart. Why might atropine be ineffective?

Transplanted hearts have faster baseline rates
Atropine is contraindicated in transplanted hearts due to toxicity
The donor heart is denervated and lacks vagal innervation (Correct answer)
Transplanted hearts respond only to calcium channel blockers

Correct answer: The donor heart is denervated and lacks vagal innervation

The transplanted heart is denervated and does not respond to atropine because there is no vagal innervation to block.

Question 45: What is the recommended rate for delivering rescue breaths during CPR when an advanced airway is in place?

1 breath every 10 seconds
1 breath every 6 seconds (Correct answer)
2 breaths every 30 compressions
1 breath every 2–3 seconds

Correct answer: 1 breath every 6 seconds

With an advanced airway in place, deliver 1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths/min) without pausing compressions.

Question 46: What is the recommended approach when bag-mask ventilation is difficult due to a poor mask seal?

Switch immediately to endotracheal intubation
Increase ventilation pressure
Reposition the head, use two hands, and consider an airway adjunct (OPA/NPA) (Correct answer)
Use a smaller mask

Correct answer: Reposition the head, use two hands, and consider an airway adjunct (OPA/NPA)

Repositioning the head, using a two-hand technique, and adding an OPA or NPA can significantly improve mask seal and ventilation effectiveness.

Question 47: During CPR on an adult, what is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio when two rescuers are present and an advanced airway has NOT been placed?

30:1
15:1
15:2
30:2 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 30:2

The 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio is used for adults until an advanced airway is placed, regardless of the number of rescuers.

Question 48: In the ACLS tachycardia algorithm, which condition requires treatment regardless of symptoms due to inherent risk?

Junctional rhythm at 55 bpm
Ventricular tachycardia at 200 bpm even if stable (Correct answer)
Atrial fibrillation with ventricular rate of 90 bpm
Sinus tachycardia at 105 bpm

Correct answer: Ventricular tachycardia at 200 bpm even if stable

Ventricular tachycardia at high rates carries risk of deterioration to VF and warrants prompt treatment even in stable patients.

Question 49: Which EEG pattern in a post-cardiac arrest patient is most strongly associated with poor neurological prognosis?

Reactive background with sleep-wake cycles
Diffuse theta slowing
Burst suppression with identical bursts (generalized suppression pattern) (Correct answer)
Alpha frequency activity in the posterior regions

Correct answer: Burst suppression with identical bursts (generalized suppression pattern)

Burst suppression with identical bursts (suppression-burst ratio >50%) is a malignant EEG pattern indicating severe cortical injury post-arrest.

Question 50: Which intervention should be avoided in the acute phase of ischemic stroke to prevent worsening cerebral ischemia?

Aggressive lowering of BP below 140 systolic in non-tPA candidates (Correct answer)
Initiating swallowing evaluation
Elevating head of bed to 30 degrees
Continuous cardiac monitoring

Correct answer: Aggressive lowering of BP below 140 systolic in non-tPA candidates

Aggressive BP reduction below 140 mmHg in non-tPA candidates can reduce perfusion pressure in the ischemic penumbra and worsen outcomes.

Question 51: The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS) assesses three findings. Which set is correct?

Facial droop, arm drift, speech abnormality (Correct answer)
Gaze deviation, facial droop, leg weakness
Pupil asymmetry, arm drift, slurred speech
Level of consciousness, arm drift, visual field cut

Correct answer: Facial droop, arm drift, speech abnormality

The CPSS evaluates facial droop, arm drift, and speech abnormality — any one abnormal finding indicates high stroke probability.

AHA Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support (ACLS) Exam

The AHA ACLS exam assesses a healthcare professional's ability to recognize and intervene in cardiopulmonary arrest, stroke, and other cardiovascular emergencies.

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