ACE Client Interview and Screening 5 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between a sign and a symptom in health screening?
- Signs are subjective reports; symptoms are objective findings
- Signs are objective observations; symptoms are subjective experiences reported by the client (Correct answer)
- Signs are found on lab reports; symptoms are found on imaging studies
- Signs require a physician; symptoms can be self-treated
Correct answer: Signs are objective observations; symptoms are subjective experiences reported by the client
Signs are objective, measurable findings (e.g., elevated blood pressure), while symptoms are subjective experiences reported by the client (e.g., dizziness).
Question 2: A client reports that his father had a heart attack at age 50. According to ACE CVD risk stratification, this counts as:
- A negative risk factor
- A positive risk factor (Correct answer)
- No risk factor because it is not the client's own history
- A moderate risk factor only if combined with smoking
Correct answer: A positive risk factor
A first-degree male relative with heart disease before age 55 is a positive CVD risk factor in ACE/ACSM risk stratification.
Question 3: Which skinfold site is located on the vertical fold at the midaxillary line at the level of the xiphoid process?
- Suprailiac
- Midaxillary (Correct answer)
- Subscapular
- Abdominal
Correct answer: Midaxillary
The midaxillary skinfold is taken as a vertical fold along the midaxillary line at the level of the xiphoid process.
Question 4: A client in the Contemplation stage of change is BEST supported by the trainer by:
- Prescribing a full five-day-per-week training program immediately
- Exploring ambivalence and providing information about the benefits of exercise (Correct answer)
- Requiring the client to sign a strict attendance contract
- Focusing entirely on advanced performance goals
Correct answer: Exploring ambivalence and providing information about the benefits of exercise
Contemplators are considering change but are not yet committed, so helping them weigh pros and cons and exploring ambivalence moves them toward action.
Question 5: The principal reason trainers document SOAP notes after each session is to:
- Meet insurance billing requirements
- Track client progress and maintain professional records (Correct answer)
- Share information with the client's employer
- Satisfy government health mandates
Correct answer: Track client progress and maintain professional records
SOAP notes (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan) create an ongoing professional record that tracks progress, guides programming, and supports continuity of care.
Question 6: During a resting heart rate assessment, the trainer counts 14 beats in a 10-second interval. What is the client's resting heart rate in beats per minute?
- 70 bpm
- 84 bpm (Correct answer)
- 56 bpm
- 98 bpm
Correct answer: 84 bpm
Multiplying 14 beats × 6 equals 84 beats per minute, the standard conversion from a 10-second count.
Question 7: Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial screening tool for a generally healthy adult who wants to start a moderate-intensity exercise program?
- Maximal graded exercise test
- PAR-Q or PAR-Q+ (Correct answer)
- Full clinical blood panel
- 12-lead resting ECG
Correct answer: PAR-Q or PAR-Q+
The PAR-Q or PAR-Q+ is the recommended minimal pre-participation screening tool for apparently healthy adults beginning moderate-intensity exercise.
Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between a sign and a symptom in health screening?