ACE Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield ACE facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What is a corrective action plan in ACE compliance? → A strategy to address deficiencies and prevent recurrence
2. What are the five process groups in ACE project management? → Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, Closing
3. What is the function of a replenishment model in 340B inventory management? → Track usage and trigger orders based on actual dispensing
4. Which of the following should be included in a contract between a covered entity and its TPA? → Data ownership, audit rights, breach notification procedures, and performance standards
5. Which of the following most commonly triggers an HRSA audit of a covered entity? → A complaint from a manufacturer, TPA, or other stakeholder alleging program violations
6. Under the 340B program, an individual does NOT qualify as a patient of the covered entity if the only health care service they receive is: → Dispensing of a drug for subsequent self-administration at home
7. Which of the following is NOT required under HRSA's 340B patient definition? → The patient must be uninsured or underinsured to qualify
8. Who is eligible to become an Apexus Certified Expert (ACE)? → Individuals engaged in 340B program responsibilities
9. Why is documentation important in ACE technology? → It ensures knowledge transfer, troubleshooting, and operational continuity
10. What is the primary purpose of registering a contract pharmacy on the HRSA 340B database? → To make the arrangement official and ensure manufacturers recognize it for 340B pricing
11. Which entity negotiates sub-ceiling prices for 340B participants? → Apexus
12. What is a dashboard in ACE reporting? → A visual display of key metrics for at-a-glance performance monitoring
13. Why is physical inventory reconciliation important in 340B programs? → To confirm 340B compliance by aligning data and inventory
14. What is the primary tool for covered entities to purchase 340B drugs at discounted prices? → Prime Vendor Program (PVP)
15. What should a ACE professional do upon discovering a colleague's unethical conduct? → Report through appropriate channels with proper documentation
16. What is the primary purpose of a code of ethics in ACE practice? → To establish professional conduct standards and guide ethical decision-making
17. What is a duplicate discount in the context of 340B compliance? → Receiving a 340B discount and a Medicaid rebate on the same drug
18. Why is stakeholder engagement important in 340B program optimization? → Promotes transparency and program improvement
19. What is a key component of successful 340B program management? → Establishing clear roles and responsibilities
20. What is a duplicate discount in the 340B Drug Pricing Program? → Receiving both a 340B discounted price and a Medicaid rebate on the same drug unit
21. What is the first step in ACE risk assessment? → Identifying potential hazards and threats
22. What action must be taken if a covered entity identifies a compliance violation? → Report it to HRSA and take corrective action
23. What is stakeholder mapping in ACE practice? → Identifying parties with project interest and assessing their influence
24. How is the 340B ceiling price for a drug generally calculated? → Average Manufacturer Price (AMP) minus the Unit Rebate Amount (URA)
25. What is the triple constraint in ACE project management? → The interdependent relationship between scope, time, and cost
26. What is a work breakdown structure in ACE practice? → Hierarchical decomposition of deliverables into manageable work packages
27. What type of records must a covered entity maintain to demonstrate patient eligibility during a 340B audit? → Medical records or other documentation establishing the patient care relationship
28. What is one benefit of standard operating procedures (SOPs) in 340B program management? → Promotes consistency and compliance
29. What is a compliance audit in ACE practice? → A systematic review verifying adherence to requirements and policies
30. Which organization(s) have authority to audit covered entities for compliance with the 340B patient definition? → HRSA and the Office of Inspector General (OIG)