Mixed Deck — All AAVSB Topics Flashcards

A bovine blood sample shows packed cell volume (PCV) of 12% and plasma that appears pink. What does the pink plasma indicate?

Answer: Intravascular hemolysis releasing free hemoglobin

Pink (hemolyzed) plasma combined with severe anemia points to intravascular hemolysis and free hemoglobin release into circulation.

On a thoracic radiograph of a cat, you identify an enlarged, 'valentine-shaped' heart on the dorsoventral (DV) view. This finding is most suggestive of which condition?

Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

The classic 'valentine' shape of the feline heart on a DV or VD radiograph is caused by severe bi-atrial enlargement, which is a common finding in cats with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). The prominent atria form the rounded lobes of the 'valentine'.

A veterinarian administers dexmedetomidine to a healthy adult horse for sedation prior to a standing procedure. Which of the following sets of physiological effects is most expected?

Answer: Bradycardia, initial hypertension followed by potential hypotension, and decreased GI motility.

Alpha-2 agonists like dexmedetomidine cause peripheral vasoconstriction, leading to an initial hypertension, which triggers a reflex bradycardia. As the drug's central effects take hold, cardiac output can decrease, potentially leading to hypotension. These drugs are also well-known for significantly reducing gastrointestinal motility and secretions. They inhibit insulin release, which can cause hyperglycemia, and inhibit antidiuretic hormone (ADH), causing diuresis.

What is the significance of a sodium:potassium ratio below 27:1 in a dog?

Answer: Suggests hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease)

A Na:K ratio below 27:1 is a classic screening indicator for Addison's disease, reflecting mineralocorticoid deficiency.

In the bitch, which phase of the estrous cycle is typically the longest and is characterized by uterine quiescence?

Answer: Anestrus

Anestrus is the longest phase in the bitch's reproductive cycle, lasting approximately 4–5 months and representing a period of reproductive inactivity between cycles.

A veterinarian in a private mixed-animal practice diagnoses a case of Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) in a cow. According to USDA-APHIS regulations for notifiable animal diseases, what is the veterinarian's most critical and immediate responsibility?

Answer: To immediately report the suspected case to both the State Animal Health Official and the federal Veterinary Official.

Accredited veterinarians have a legal obligation to immediately report any suspected or diagnosed cases of diseases on the National List of Reportable Animal Diseases, especially foreign animal diseases or those with control/eradication programs like BSE. The correct protocol is to notify both the State Animal Health Official (SAHO) and the USDA-APHIS Veterinary Official (VO) without delay to initiate a rapid and coordinated response.

Which zoonotic disease risk to veterinary staff is directly mitigated by pre-exposure rabies vaccination?

Answer: Exposure to potentially rabid wildlife or unvaccinated animals during clinical care

Pre-exposure rabies vaccination is recommended for veterinary personnel because of occupational exposure risk when handling potentially rabid animals.

Which disease is a legal requirement for vaccination in dogs in most US states?

Answer: Rabies

Rabies vaccination is mandated by law in most US states due to its public health significance as a fatal zoonotic disease.

A horse is being treated with gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, for a severe bacterial infection. Which of the following potential toxicities is the most significant concern with this class of drug and requires therapeutic monitoring?

Answer: Nephrotoxicity

The primary adverse effect of aminoglycoside antibiotics, such as gentamicin and amikacin, is nephrotoxicity (kidney damage). Ototoxicity (damage to the ear) is also a concern. Monitoring renal function through bloodwork (BUN, creatinine) is crucial during therapy to prevent irreversible kidney damage.

Brucella canis infection in dogs is most commonly transmitted via which route?

Answer: Vaginal discharges, aborted materials, and semen

Brucella canis is primarily transmitted through contact with vaginal discharges, aborted fetuses, and infected semen, making breeding and whelping high-risk events.

A 3-year-old indoor/outdoor cat with unknown vaccine history presents for a wellness exam. Which vaccine should be administered based on AAFP core guidelines?

Answer: Rabies and FVRCP

Rabies and FVRCP are AAFP core vaccines for all cats regardless of lifestyle; their administration is appropriate even with unknown history.

A 12-year-old Domestic Shorthair cat is presented with a 3-month history of progressive weight loss despite a ravenous appetite. The owner also reports increased vocalization and occasional vomiting. On physical exam, you note a heart rate of 240 bpm and a palpable nodule in the cervical region. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer: Hyperthyroidism

The combination of weight loss with polyphagia, hyperactivity/vocalization, tachycardia, and a palpable thyroid nodule are classic clinical signs for feline hyperthyroidism. While diabetes mellitus can cause weight loss and polyphagia, it is typically associated with polyuria and polydipsia. Chronic kidney disease and inflammatory bowel disease usually present with weight loss and anorexia or variable appetite, not a ravenous one.

What does the VAULT program facilitate?

Answer: Licensure transfer between states

The VAULT program, or Veterinary Application for Uniform Licensure Transfer, facilitates the transfer of licensure credentials for veterinarians moving between different states or provinces. It provides a secure, standardized system for storing and sharing professional documents, simplifying the application process for licensure in new jurisdictions. This service significantly reduces administrative burden and promotes professional mobility.

In which domestic species is commercial embryo transfer (ET) most widely practiced, with tens of thousands of procedures performed annually?

Answer: Cattle

Cattle embryo transfer is the most commercially developed ET program worldwide, driven by the high value of elite genetics and well-established non-surgical transfer protocols.

In cattle, which hormone is primarily responsible for causing luteolysis at the end of the estrous cycle?

Answer: Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α)

Prostaglandin F2α released from the endometrium causes regression of the corpus luteum, ending the luteal phase of the estrous cycle in cattle.

A veterinary technician is preparing a patient's skin for orthopedic surgery. Which of the following represents the correct final step in the aseptic skin preparation process?

Answer: A final paint of antiseptic solution, applied starting at the center of the proposed incision site and working outwards in a circular pattern.

The final step of aseptic skin preparation involves applying a final 'paint' of antiseptic solution. This should be done starting at the location of the planned incision and moving outward in an ever-expanding circular or linear pattern. This technique prevents dragging contaminants from the unprepared periphery back over the clean central area. One should never move from the periphery to the center during this process.

Which test is considered the gold standard for diagnosing feline hyperthyroidism?

Answer: Total T4 (TT4)

Total T4 is the initial screening test of choice for feline hyperthyroidism due to its high sensitivity in overtly hyperthyroid cats.

An 8-year-old intact female dog presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and a vaginal discharge 6 weeks after estrus. Abdominal ultrasound shows a fluid-filled uterus. Which is the most appropriate treatment?

Answer: Ovariohysterectomy

Ovariohysterectomy is the definitive and safest treatment for pyometra in a non-breeding female dog, eliminating the infected uterus and source of systemic illness.

Feline injection-site sarcoma (FISS) risk is minimized by which vaccination practice recommended by the Vaccine-Associated Feline Sarcoma Task Force?

Answer: Administering vaccines in distal limbs or tail to allow surgical resection if sarcoma develops

Injection site sarcomas in cats are treated with wide surgical excision; administering vaccines in distal limbs or the tail enables more complete resection if sarcoma develops.

What is the purpose of RACE program?

Answer: To approve continuing education courses

The Registry of Approved Continuing Education (RACE) program is a quality assurance program that reviews and approves continuing education (CE) courses for veterinary professionals. Its purpose is to ensure that CE programs meet specific standards of quality and relevance. This helps veterinarians and veterinary technicians fulfill their licensure requirements with credible and valuable educational content.