AAC Safety & Risk Management — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Under ATP 5-19, which three types of controls are used to reduce risk?
- Primary, secondary, and tertiary
- Administrative, legal, and financial
- Educational, physical, and avoidance (Correct answer)
- Preventive, corrective, and detective
Correct answer: Educational, physical, and avoidance
ATP 5-19 groups risk controls as educational, physical, and avoidance (elimination) controls.
Question 2: What is 'residual risk' in Army risk management?
- The risk before any hazard is identified
- Risk transferred to a higher headquarters
- Risk that applies only to ground operations
- The risk left after controls have been applied (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The risk left after controls have been applied
Residual risk is the level of risk remaining once controls are implemented, and it is what the proper authority accepts.
Question 3: Which DD form is used to document a deliberate risk assessment?
- DD Form 1348
- DD Form 2977 (Correct answer)
- DD Form 1574
- DD Form 214
Correct answer: DD Form 2977
DD Form 2977 is the Deliberate Risk Assessment Worksheet used Army-wide.
Question 4: On the Army risk assessment matrix, which severity category means the loss of mission capability or a death?
- Negligible (IV)
- Moderate (III)
- Catastrophic (I) (Correct answer)
- Critical (II)
Correct answer: Catastrophic (I)
Catastrophic is the highest severity category: death, permanent total disability, or loss of mission capability.
Question 5: Who decides whether to accept the residual risk of an operation?
- The unit supply sergeant
- The commander or leader at the proper risk acceptance level (Correct answer)
- The most junior crew member
- The aircraft manufacturer's representative
Correct answer: The commander or leader at the proper risk acceptance level
Risk decisions belong to the commander or leader with authority matching the residual risk level.
Question 6: Which probability level on the Army risk matrix means a hazard happens often during a mission or over a career?
- Unlikely
- Occasional
- Frequent (Correct answer)
- Seldom
Correct answer: Frequent
Frequent is the highest probability level, meaning the event happens often or is continuously experienced.
Question 7: During which risk management step do leaders confirm controls are working and update them as needed?
- Identify the hazards
- Develop controls and make risk decisions
- Assess the hazards
- Supervise and evaluate (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Supervise and evaluate
Step five, supervise and evaluate, checks that controls are enforced and effective, and adjusts them as conditions change.
Question 8: What does a red X on DA Form 2408-13-1 mean?
- The aircraft is fully mission capable
- The aircraft is unsafe or unserviceable and must not be flown (Correct answer)
- A known deficiency exists that does not affect safety
- An inspection is overdue but the aircraft may be flown
Correct answer: The aircraft is unsafe or unserviceable and must not be flown
A red X marks an unsafe or unserviceable condition and grounds the aircraft until the fault is corrected.
Question 9: What does a circled red X status symbol mean?
- The aircraft is permanently grounded
- The aircraft is due for its next phase inspection
- The aircraft may be flown under limits set by an authorized person (Correct answer)
- The aircraft is fully cleared with no restrictions
Correct answer: The aircraft may be flown under limits set by an authorized person
A circled red X means a condition exists, but an authorized person has allowed flight under specific limits.
Question 10: A red diagonal (/) on the aircraft status block means what?
- An unsafe condition grounds the aircraft
- The aircraft is in depot overhaul
- A required inspection is overdue
- A material defect exists that is not urgent enough to ground the aircraft (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A material defect exists that is not urgent enough to ground the aircraft
A red diagonal shows a known deficiency or defect that does not make the aircraft unsafe to fly.
Question 11: Which status symbol shows that a required inspection, component change, or test flight is due but not yet done?
- Black initials
- Red horizontal dash (—) (Correct answer)
- Red X
- Red diagonal (/)
Correct answer: Red horizontal dash (—)
A red horizontal dash shows an overdue or due inspection, component replacement, or maintenance operational check.
Question 12: Which type of AMCOM message usually grounds aircraft or restricts flight because of an urgent safety problem?
- Supply bulletin
- Maintenance Information Message (MIM)
- Monthly readiness report
- Safety-of-Flight (SOF) message (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Safety-of-Flight (SOF) message
SOF messages address conditions that threaten flight safety and can ground fleets or restrict operations right away.
Question 13: What is the main purpose of an Aviation Safety Action Message (ASAM)?
- To set unit fuel allocations
- To announce personnel promotions
- To pass on maintenance, technical, or general safety information that is less urgent than a SOF (Correct answer)
- To approve the annual training budget
Correct answer: To pass on maintenance, technical, or general safety information that is less urgent than a SOF
ASAMs pass on safety-related maintenance, technical, or informational guidance that does not need SOF-level urgency.
Question 14: A crew chief finds a cracked flight control rod end during a preflight. What should the crew chief do first?
- Note it for the next phase inspection
- Tape over it and monitor during flight
- Enter a red X in the aircraft forms and stop the flight (Correct answer)
- Tell the pilot after the mission
Correct answer: Enter a red X in the aircraft forms and stop the flight
A cracked flight control component is an unsafe condition that calls for a red X and grounding right away.
Question 15: Which fire extinguisher class is used on a burning magnesium component?
- Class A
- Class C
- Class B
- Class D (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Class D
Class D agents are made for combustible metals such as magnesium and titanium.
Question 16: What should be done before refueling an aircraft to prevent static discharge?
- Ground the aircraft and bond the fuel nozzle to the aircraft (Correct answer)
- Turn on all aircraft lights
- Spray the fuel port with water
- Run the engine at idle
Correct answer: Ground the aircraft and bond the fuel nozzle to the aircraft
Grounding and bonding equalize static potential between the aircraft, the fuel source, and the earth, which prevents sparks.
Question 17: Why should nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries be serviced in separate areas?
- Their electrolytes neutralize and contaminate each other, causing damage (Correct answer)
- Ni-Cd batteries cannot be charged indoors
- They need different lighting
- Lead-acid batteries are radioactive
Correct answer: Their electrolytes neutralize and contaminate each other, causing damage
Acid from lead-acid batteries and alkaline electrolyte from Ni-Cd batteries contaminate each other and damage cells.
Question 18: What does the Army treat as a noise-hazardous area for steady-state noise?
- 120 dBA or greater
- 85 dBA or greater (Correct answer)
- 60 dBA or greater
- 70 dBA or greater
Correct answer: 85 dBA or greater
Under DA PAM 40-501, steady-state noise of 85 dBA or more needs hearing protection and posted warnings.
Question 19: Why must oil and grease be kept away from aircraft oxygen system fittings?
- They void the warranty
- Petroleum products can ignite violently when exposed to pure oxygen (Correct answer)
- They cause the regulator to freeze
- They make the oxygen smell
Correct answer: Petroleum products can ignite violently when exposed to pure oxygen
Pure oxygen in contact with petroleum-based products can cause spontaneous combustion or an explosion.
Question 20: Before working on a hazardous chemical such as a paint stripper, where can a technician find its hazards and required PPE?
- The flight plan
- The aircraft logbook
- The unit duty roster
- The Safety Data Sheet (SDS) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The Safety Data Sheet (SDS)
Under the OSHA Hazard Communication Standard, the SDS lists a chemical's hazards, PPE, handling, and first aid.
Question 21: Before maintenance on an electrical or hydraulic system, what procedure keeps the system from being energized unexpectedly?
- Lockout/tagout (Correct answer)
- Run-up checks
- Hot refueling
- Phase inspection
Correct answer: Lockout/tagout
Lockout/tagout isolates energy sources and tags them so no one can re-energize the system while work is underway.
Under ATP 5-19, which three types of controls are used to reduce risk?
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