NCLEX Practice Exam 1

This is a timed quiz. You will be given 45 seconds per question. Are you ready?

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Which individual is at greatest risk for developing hypertension?

Correct! Wrong!

The incidence of hypertension is greater among African Americans than other groups in the US. The incidence among the Hispanic population is rising.

A child who ingested 15 maximum strength acetaminophen tablets 45 minutes ago is seen in the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first?

Correct! Wrong!

Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for this drug overdose. This is best done by gastric lavage. The next drug to give would be activated charcoal, then mucomyst and lastly the IV fluids.

Which complication of cardiac catheterization should the nurse monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure?

Correct! Wrong!

Thrombus formation in the coronary arteries is a potential problem in the initial 24 hours after a cardiac catheterization. A falling BP occurs along with hemorrhage of the insertion site which is associated with the first 12 hours after the procedure.

A client is admitted to the emergency room with renal calculi and is complaining of moderate to severe flank pain and nausea. The client’s temperature is 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit. The priority nursing goal for this client is:

Correct! Wrong!

The immediate goal of therapy is to alleviate the client’s pain.

What would the nurse expect to see while assessing the growth of children during their school age years?

Correct! Wrong!

School age children gain about 5.5 pounds each year and increase about 2 inches in height.

At a community health fair, the blood pressure of a 62-year-old client is 160/96 mmHg. The client states “My blood pressure is usually much lower.” The nurse should tell the client to

Correct! Wrong!

The blood pressure reading is moderately high with the need to have it rechecked in a few days. The client states it is ‘usually much lower.’ Thus a concern exists for complications such as stroke. However, immediate check by the provider of care is not warranted. Waiting 2 months or a week for follow-up is too long.

The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse put first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

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The best candidate for discharge is one who has had a chronic condition and is most familiar with their care. This client in option A is most likely stable and could continue medication therapy at home.

A client has been newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and will take levothyroxine (Synthroid) 50 mcg/day by mouth. As part of the teaching plan, the nurse emphasizes that this medication:

Correct! Wrong!

Thyroid supplement should be taken in the morning to minimize the side effects of insomnia

A 3-year-old child comes to the pediatric clinic after the sudden onset of findings that include irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, hot to touch, sit leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling and suprasternal retractions. What should the nurse do first?

Correct! Wrong!

These findings suggest a medical emergency and may be due to epiglottises. Any child with an acute onset of an inflammatory response in the mouth and throat should receive immediate attention in a facility equipped to perform intubation or a tracheostomy in the event of further or complete obstruction.

In children suspected to have a diagnosis of diabetes, which one of the following complaints would be most likely to prompt parents to take their school age child for evaluation?

Correct! Wrong!

In children, fatigue and bed wetting are the chief complaints that prompt parents to take their child for evaluation. Bed wetting in a school age child is readily detected by the parents.

A client comes to the clinic for treatment of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease. The nurse recognizes that this condition most frequently follows which type of infection?

Correct! Wrong!

Chlamydial infections are one of the most frequent causes of salpingitis or pelvic inflammatory disease.

An RN who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is floated to the emergency department. Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to this RN?

Correct! Wrong!

Nurses who are floated to other units should be assigned to a client who has minimal anticipated immediate complications of their problem. The client in option C exhibits opoid toxicity with the pinpoint pupils and has the least risk of complications to occur in the near future.

When teaching a client with coronary artery disease about nutrition, the nurse should emphasize

Correct! Wrong!

Eating large, heavy meals can pull blood away from the heart for digestion and is dangerous for the client with coronary artery disease.

Which of these findings indicate that a pump to deliver a basal rate of 10 ml per hour plus PRN for pain break through for morphine drip is not working?

Correct! Wrong!

The minimal dose of 10 mL per hour which would be 40 mL given in a four (4) hour period. Only 60 mL should be left at noon. The pump is not functioning when more than expected medicine is left in the container.

The nurse is speaking at a community meeting about personal responsibility for health promotion. A participant asks about chiropractic treatment for illnesses. What should be the focus of the nurse’s response?

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The theory underlying chiropractic is that interference with transmission of mental impulses between the brain and body organs produces diseases. Such interference is caused by misalignment of the vertebrae. Manipulation reduces the subluxation.

The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client post right CVA. Which finding, if observed by the nurse, would warrant immediate attention?

Correct! Wrong!

A further decrease in the level of consciousness would be indicative of a further progression of the CVA.

A child who has recently been diagnosed with cystic fibrosis is in a pediatric clinic where a nurse is performing an assessment. Which later finding of this disease would the nurse not expect to see at this time?

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Noisy respirations and a dry non-productive cough are commonly the first of the respiratory signs to appear in a newly diagnosed client with cystic fibrosis (CF). The other options are the earliest findings. CF is an inherited (genetic) condition affecting the cells that produce mucus, sweat, saliva and digestive juices. Normally, these secretions are thin and slippery, but in CF, a defective gene causes the secretions to become thick and sticky. Instead of acting as a lubricant, the secretions plug up tubes, ducts, and passageways, especially in the pancreas and lungs. Respiratory failure is the most dangerous consequence of CF.

The home health nurse visits a male client to provide wound care and finds the client lethargic and confused. His wife states he fell down the stairs 2 hours ago. The nurse should

Correct! Wrong!

This client requires immediate evaluation. A delay in treatment could result in further deterioration and harm. Home care nurses must prioritize interventions based on assessment findings that are in the client’s best interest.

Which of the following should the nurse implement to prepare a client for a KUB (Kidney, Ureter, Bladder) radiograph test?

Correct! Wrong!

No special preparation is necessary for this examination.

The nurse is giving discharge teaching to a client seven (7) days post myocardial infarction. He asks the nurse why he must wait six (6) weeks before having sexual intercourse. What is the best response by the nurse to this question?

Correct! Wrong!

There is a risk of cardiac rupture at the point of the myocardial infarction for about six (6) weeks. Scar tissue should form about that time. Waiting until the client can tolerate climbing stairs is the usual advice given by health care providers.

A triage nurse has these four (4) clients arrive in the emergency department within 15 minutes. Which client should the triage nurse send back to be seen first?

Correct! Wrong!

This client is in the greatest danger with a potential of respiratory distress. Any client with singed facial hair has been exposed to heat or fire in close range that could have caused damage to the interior of the lung. Note that the interior lining of the lung has no nerve fibers so the client will not be aware of swelling.

While planning care for a toddler, the nurse teaches the parents about the expected developmental changes for this age. Which statement by the mother shows that she understands the child’s developmental needs?

Correct! Wrong!

Erikson describes the stage of the toddler as being the time when there is normally an increase in autonomy. The child needs to use motor skills to explore the environment.

The nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding to a client via a nasogastric feeding tube. The most important action of the nurse is

Correct! Wrong!

Proper placement of the tube prevents aspiration.

The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq KCL in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?

Correct! Wrong!

A tall peaked T wave is a sign of hyperkalemia. The health care provider should be notified regarding discontinuing the medication.

A nurse prepares to care for a 4-year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?

Correct! Wrong!

Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common children's soft tissue sarcoma. It originates in striated (skeletal) muscles and can be found anywhere in the body. The clue is in the middle of the word and is “myo” which typically means muscle.

The nurse anticipates that for a family who practices Chinese medicine the priority goal would be to

Correct! Wrong!

For followers of Chinese medicine, health is maintained through the balance between the forces of yin and yang.

During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from 145 to 110 mmHg and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats per minute and the client complains of periodic dizzy spells. The nurse instructs the client to

Correct! Wrong!

Postural hypotension, a decrease in systolic blood pressure of more than 15 mmHg and an increase in heart rate of more than 15 percent usually accompanied by dizziness indicate volume depletion, inadequate vasoconstrictor mechanisms, and autonomic insufficiency.

The nurse prepares the client for insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (Swan-Ganz catheter). The nurse teaches the client that the catheter will be inserted to provide information about:

Correct! Wrong!

The catheter is placed in the pulmonary artery. Information regarding left ventricular function is obtained when the catheter balloon is inflated.

A nurse enters a client’s room to discover that the client has no pulse or respirations. After calling for help, the first action the nurse should take is

Correct! Wrong!

As per new guidelines, the American Heart Association recommends beginning CPR with chest compression (rather than checking for the airway first). Start CPR with 30 chest compressions before checking the airway and giving rescue breaths. Starting with chest compressions first applies to adults, children, and infants needing CPR, but not newborns. CPR can keep oxygenated blood flowing to the brain and other vital organs until more definitive medical treatment can restore a normal heart rhythm.

A client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. The health care provider has written a new order to give metoprolol (Lopressor) 25 mg B.I.D. In assessing the client prior to administering the medications, which of the following should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?

Correct! Wrong!

Both medications decrease the heart rate. Metoprolol affects blood pressure. Therefore, the heart rate and blood pressure must be within normal range (HR 60-100; systolic B/P over 100) in order to safely administer both medications.

While assessing a 1-month-old infant, which finding should the nurse report immediately?

Correct! Wrong!

Inspiratory grunting is abnormal and may be a sign of respiratory distress in this infant.

The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the post mature fetus is at risk due to

Correct! Wrong!

The placenta functions less efficiently as the pregnancy continues beyond 42 weeks. Immediate and long-term effects may be related to hypoxia.

The nurse is caring for a client who had a total hip replacement four (4) days ago. Which assessment requires the nurse’s immediate attention?

Correct! Wrong!

The nurse would be concerned about all of these comments. However, the most life threatening is option B. Clients who have had hip or knee surgery are at greatest risk for development of post operative pulmonary embolism. Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia are classic findings of pulmonary embolism. Muscle spasms do not require immediate attention. Option C may indicate a urinary tract infection. And option D requires further investigation and is not life threatening.

A client has been taking furosemide (Lasix) for the past week. The nurse recognizes which finding may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?

Correct! Wrong!

Lasix causes a loss of potassium if a supplement is not taken. Signs and symptoms of hypokalemia include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias.

A client who is pregnant comes to the clinic for a first visit. The nurse gathers data about her obstetric history, which includes 3 year-old twins at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation. How would the nurse accurately document this information?

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Gravida is the number of pregnancies and Parity is the number of pregnancies that reach viability (not the number of fetuses). Thus, for this woman, she is now pregnant, had 2 prior pregnancies, and 1 viable birth (twins).

The nurse is caring for a client with a venous stasis ulcer. Which nursing intervention would be most effective in promoting healing?

Correct! Wrong!

The goal of clinical management in a client with venous stasis ulcers is to promote healing. This only can be accomplished with proper nutrition. The other answers are correct, but without proper nutrition, the other interventions would be of little help.

A nurse is to administer meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) 100 mg, atropine sulfate (Atropisol) 0.4 mg, and promethazine hydrochloride (Phenergan) 50 mg IM to a pre-operative client. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct! Wrong!

The first step in the process is to have the client void prior to administering the pre-operative medication. The other actions follow this initial step in this sequence: D, C, A, and B.

Which of these statements best describes the characteristic of an effective reward-feedback system?

Correct! Wrong!

Feedback is most useful when given immediately. Positive behavior is strengthened through immediate feedback, and it is easier to modify problem behaviors if the standards are clearly understood.

A client with multiple sclerosis plans to begin an exercise program. In addition to discussing the benefits of regular exercise, the nurse should caution the client to avoid activities which

Correct! Wrong!

The client must take in adequate fluids before and during exercise periods.

During the evaluation of the quality of home care for a client with Alzheimer’s disease, the priority for the nurse is to reinforce which statement by a family member?

Correct! Wrong!

Ensuring safety of the client with increasing memory loss is a priority of home care. Note all options are correct statements. However, safety is most important to reinforce.

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