Wound Care Certification Exam Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Wound Care Certification Exam facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What is round, fluid-filled, and bigger than 1 cm? → Bulla
2. What is the primary mechanism of action for autolytic debridement? → The use of the body's own enzymes and phagocytic cells to liquefy non-viable tissue.
3. What is the PRIMARY purpose of wound debridement? → Remove necrotic tissue and reduce bacterial load to promote healing
4. What form of drainage is Stewie Griffin experiencing from his wound, which appears clear and watery? → Serous drainage
5. Which of the following nutritional recommendations is MOST important for an individual at high risk for pressure injury development? → Increased fluid intake and adequate protein.
6. Sharp debridement is contraindicated in wounds with: → Poor arterial blood supply and ischemia
7. If you've lost ___ of your weight in the last three months, that means your nutrition has gone down a lot. → 10%
8. What is full-thickness skin loss with subcutaneous tissue injury or necrosis? → Stage III
9. Retention sutures: how long do they stay in place? → 14 days or more
10. A pressure ulcer that shows up as a deep crater, with or without damage to the surrounding tissue, is called a ____. → stage III
11. Which physical finding is most consistent with chronic venous insufficiency of the lower extremity? → Lipodermatosclerosis and hemosiderin staining
12. When taking steps to avoid friction that could lead to a pressure ulcer, which of the following should be avoided? → Talcum powder
13. Pressure ulcers can be caused by dehydration and malnutrition. → TRUE
14. Which factor is NOT considered a significant risk factor for lower extremity amputation in patients with diabetes? → Hemoglobin A1c of 5.8%
15. Which anatomical location is most typical for venous stasis ulcers? → Medial malleolus and gaiter area of the lower leg
16. From day 3 or 4 to day 21, when the injury happens, this phase of healing gets longer. The area has more collagen. Capillaries run across the wound. → Proliferative phase
17. Which enzymatic debriding agent is currently FDA-approved for wound debridement in the United States? → Collagenase (Santyl)
18. What is the best dressing to use when a deep ulcerated area has a lot of exudate and the drainage is caused by tumor necrosis? → Alginate
19. Which dressing strategy is most appropriate for a venous leg ulcer with moderate exudate? → Absorbent foam dressing under compression bandaging
20. What is the gold standard for diagnosing wound infection? → Quantitative wound tissue biopsy culture
21. Which bacterial count per gram of tissue indicates critical colonization or infection? → 10^5
22. Which of the following therapies is recommended as a first line of treatment for weepy, red, itchy atopic dermatitis? → Wet aluminum acetate compresses
23. All of the following are functions of a pressure-redistributing support surface EXCEPT: → Eliminating the need for patient repositioning.
24. Which intervention is MOST effective for disrupting wound biofilm? → Mechanical debridement combined with antimicrobial therapy
25. Blood stops bleeding during hemostasis. A cut made by a sharp instrument during surgery that gives access to an organ or space in the body. → Incision
26. Lois Griffin has red blood coming out of a wound. What's this exudate? → Sanguineous drainage
27. Which pathogen is most commonly isolated from infected diabetic foot ulcers? → Staphylococcus aureus (including MRSA)
28. What does the acronym NERDS stand for in wound infection assessment? → Non-healing, Exudate increase, Red friable tissue, Debris, Smell
29. Which of the following is the primary mechanism by which smoking systemically impairs wound healing? → Reducing oxygen-carrying capacity and causing vasoconstriction
30. Where do you tie the square knot when using a triangle-shaped blinder (Sling)? → at the lateral area of neck on uninjured side