Urgent Care Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Urgent Care facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Nylon sutures placed on the face should typically be removed after how many days? → 5–7 days
2. Which of the following is a contraindication to using tissue adhesive for wound closure? → A wound with signs of infection
3. Which of the following is the appropriate first-line topical treatment for impetigo in urgent care? → Topical mupirocin (Bactroban) twice daily for 5 days
4. A patient presents after a fall with 'snuffbox' tenderness. Which bone is most likely fractured? → Scaphoid
5. Which fracture pattern in the distal radius is associated with dorsal angulation and is most common in elderly patients after a fall? → Colles fracture
6. What is the most appropriate splint for an acute non-displaced fracture of the second through fourth metacarpal shaft? → Radial gutter splint
7. Which wound characteristic increases the risk of tetanus in a patient with an unknown immunization history? → Deep, contaminated puncture wound
8. Which element of the physical exam is most critical for a patient presenting with acute abdominal pain in urgent care? → Assessment for peritoneal signs (rebound tenderness, guarding, rigidity)
9. Which medication is contraindicated in a pregnant patient presenting with a UTI? → Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole in the third trimester
10. Which screening tool is recommended for identifying depression in urgent care patients? → Patient Health Questionnaire-2 (PHQ-2)
11. Which opioid analgesic is considered most appropriate for short-term acute pain management in urgent care? → Short-acting hydrocodone-acetaminophen for ≤3–5 days
12. What is the purpose of deep absorbable sutures placed in a laceration before skin closure? → To eliminate dead space and reduce tension on skin edges
13. What is the most common reason patients are inappropriately triaged to urgent care instead of the ED? → Patients underestimate symptom severity and urgency of their condition
14. What do I need to bring with me when I visit? → all of the above
15. True or false: A patient with hypertension typically has a normal physical examination. → True
16. The majority of hypertension sufferers have no symptoms. → True
17. At which anatomical site should epinephrine be injected for anaphylaxis in adults? → Anterolateral aspect of the mid-thigh
18. An EpiPen auto-injector is available in which epinephrine doses? → 0.15 mg (junior) or 0.3 mg (standard) depending on the formulation
19. Which combination of symptoms is classic for anaphylaxis? → Urticaria, angioedema, and bronchospasm
20. What neurovascular structure is most at risk in a displaced supracondylar humerus fracture in a child? → Anterior interosseous nerve and brachial artery
21. Depending on the stage of hypertension, treatment for HTN does not always require medication. → True
22. A patient is diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia. Which PSI/PORT score would support outpatient management? → PSI Class I or II (low risk)
23. A patient on metformin is prescribed a iodinated contrast study for abdominal imaging. What medication guidance applies? → Hold metformin 48 hours before contrast and resume after confirming normal renal function
24. Which assessment tool is commonly used in urgent care to quickly evaluate a patient's level of consciousness? → AVPU scale (Alert, Voice, Pain, Unresponsive)
25. What is the minimum recommended observation period after treating anaphylaxis in urgent care? → 4-6 hours
26. Which vital sign finding is most immediately concerning in a patient presenting with anaphylaxis? → Blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg
27. Do I require an urgent care appointment? Yes/No. → No
28. A patient with type 2 diabetes is started on a fluoroquinolone antibiotic. What glucose monitoring instruction should be given? → Monitor glucose closely — fluoroquinolones can cause both hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia
29. What does OPQRST stand for in urgent care pain assessment? → Onset, Palliation, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Time
30. What is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis in an urgent care setting? → Epinephrine 0.3mg IM (1:1000)