Mixed Deck — All TNCC Topics Flashcards
100 cards from real TNCC practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 20 Mixed Deck — All TNCC Topics flashcards as text
What role does ethics play in Burn Management practice?
Answer: It guides professional conduct and protects stakeholders
Professional ethics provide frameworks for responsible decision-making, ensuring practitioners act in the best interest of those they serve.
Which continuing education element is required alongside passing the written TNCC exam for certification?
Answer: Successful demonstration of required psychomotor skills
In addition to the cognitive written examination, candidates must successfully pass psychomotor skills stations to receive TNCC certification.
Which pediatric trauma triage tool uses weight, airway, respirations, perfusion, and mental status to categorize pediatric patients at a mass casualty incident?
Answer: JumpSTART triage
JumpSTART is the pediatric adaptation of START triage, modified to account for pediatric respiratory rates, apneic breathing rescue breaths, and age-appropriate physiologic parameters.
Which skill is typically evaluated during the TNCC airway management skill station?
Answer: Assessment and management of airway patency including positioning and suction
The airway skill station assesses the nurse's ability to evaluate airway patency and perform appropriate interventions such as positioning and suctioning.
What is the relationship between theory and practice in Shock Recognition?
Answer: Theory provides the foundation; practice applies it to real situations
Theory provides the conceptual foundation and principles, while practice involves applying those concepts to real-world situations. Both are essential for competence.
A trauma patient cannot state the current month, does not know where they are, but responds correctly to their name. Orientation is best described as:
Answer: Oriented x1 (person only)
Orientation is assessed as person, place, time, and event; knowing only one's name represents orientation to person only (x1).
Which personal benefit do nurses most commonly cite after completing TNCC?
Answer: Increased confidence when managing complex trauma patients
Nurses consistently report greater self-confidence in trauma assessment and intervention skills following TNCC completion.
During a primary survey, a patient has an actively bleeding extremity wound with a tourniquet already applied. The tourniquet is not controlling bleeding. What is the next intervention?
Answer: Apply a second tourniquet proximal to the first
Applying a second tourniquet proximal to the first is the recommended intervention when a single tourniquet fails to control hemorrhage from a proximal extremity wound.
Which finding on chest X-ray after intubation indicates right mainstem bronchus intubation?
Answer: Left lung atelectasis with right lung hyperexpansion
Right mainstem intubation selectively ventilates the right lung, causing left lung atelectasis and relative right lung hyperinflation on chest X-ray.
Which pattern of pediatric injury should prompt mandatory reporting to child protective services regardless of parental explanation?
Answer: Bilateral retinal hemorrhages in a 6-month-old
Bilateral retinal hemorrhages in an infant are highly associated with abusive head trauma (shaken baby syndrome) and mandate mandatory reporting.
The ASIA Impairment Scale grade 'B' indicates which level of spinal cord injury?
Answer: Incomplete: sensory but no motor function preserved below the neurological level
ASIA grade B is sensory incomplete: sensory function is preserved below the neurological level but no motor function is present below that level.
What is the process of elimination in multiple-choice testing?
Answer: Ruling out obviously incorrect answers to improve odds
Process of elimination involves identifying and removing clearly wrong answers, increasing the probability of selecting the correct answer from remaining options.
In damage control resuscitation (DCR), what ratio of packed red blood cells to fresh frozen plasma is recommended?
Answer: 1:1
DCR uses a 1:1 ratio of pRBC to FFP (with platelets 1:1:1) to address traumatic coagulopathy and restore all clotting factors.
A burn patient with singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, and carbonaceous sputum should receive airway management:
Answer: Early, before progressive edema makes intubation impossible
Signs of inhalation injury predict rapidly progressive airway edema; early intubation before complete obstruction is essential.
A 3-year-old is brought in after a motor vehicle crash. Which anatomical feature makes pediatric airway management uniquely challenging compared to adults?
Answer: Proportionally larger occiput causing neck flexion when supine
The proportionally larger occiput in young children causes passive neck flexion when supine, which can obstruct the airway without proper positioning.
Which burn location automatically qualifies a patient for transfer to a burn center regardless of burn size?
Answer: Burns involving the face, hands, feet, genitalia, perineum, or major joints
ABA burn center referral criteria include burns to functionally and cosmetically critical areas: face, hands, feet, genitalia, perineum, and major joints.
What is the relationship between theory and practice in Abdominal Trauma?
Answer: Theory provides the foundation; practice applies it to real situations
Theory provides the conceptual foundation and principles, while practice involves applying those concepts to real-world situations. Both are essential for competence.
A patient with a long bone fracture develops acute confusion, tachycardia, and fever 24 hours post-injury. Which condition should be highest on the differential?
Answer: Fat embolism syndrome
Fat embolism syndrome typically occurs 24–72 hours after long bone fractures and presents with the triad of respiratory failure, neurologic dysfunction (including confusion), and petechial rash.
When assessing a burn patient's airway 6 hours after injury, which finding should prompt the most urgent action?
Answer: Stridor with increasing hoarseness
Stridor with worsening hoarseness indicates critical laryngeal edema that requires immediate intubation before the airway becomes inaccessible.
Which anatomical landmark is used to confirm correct endotracheal tube placement above the carina?
Answer: Carina at T4-T5
The carina, located at the level of T4-T5, is the bifurcation point; the ETT tip should rest 2-3 cm above it.