ATI Nursing Proctored Assessment — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which of the following findings is a classic sign of dehydration in an adult patient?

Decreased skin turgor (Correct answer)
Bounding peripheral pulses
Bradycardia
Hypertension

Correct answer: Decreased skin turgor

Decreased skin turgor (tenting) is a classic sign of dehydration caused by loss of interstitial fluid.

Question 2: A nurse is caring for a child with nephrotic syndrome. Which finding is most characteristic?

Massive proteinuria and generalized edema (Correct answer)
Hematuria and hypertension
Elevated BUN and creatinine with oliguria
Flank pain and dysuria

Correct answer: Massive proteinuria and generalized edema

Nephrotic syndrome is defined by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and generalized edema (including periorbital).

Question 3: A patient with type 1 diabetes is found unconscious with a blood glucose of 38 mg/dL. What is the priority intervention?

Notify the physician and wait for orders
Administer subcutaneous insulin
Administer IV dextrose 50% (D50W) (Correct answer)
Give 15 g of oral carbohydrate

Correct answer: Administer IV dextrose 50% (D50W)

An unconscious patient with severe hypoglycemia cannot take oral glucose — IV dextrose (D50W) must be administered immediately.

Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client following bariatric surgery. Which nutrient supplement is most critical to recommend for lifelong use after Roux-en-Y gastric bypass?

Vitamin B12 (Correct answer)
Zinc
Magnesium
Vitamin C

Correct answer: Vitamin B12

Gastric bypass removes the section of the stomach and duodenum needed to produce intrinsic factor and absorb B12, requiring lifelong supplementation.

Question 5: Which of the following is an example of a 'never event' as defined by the National Quality Forum?

Delayed documentation of a routine assessment
A surgical procedure performed on the wrong patient (Correct answer)
A patient falls while walking to the bathroom
A medication error caught before reaching the patient

Correct answer: A surgical procedure performed on the wrong patient

Never events (serious reportable events) include wrong-patient, wrong-site, and wrong-procedure surgeries, which are entirely preventable.

Question 6: A patient with schizophrenia tells the nurse, 'The CIA has implanted a chip in my brain to monitor my thoughts.' The nurse documents this as:

A persecutory delusion (Correct answer)
An auditory hallucination
A somatic delusion
Thought broadcasting

Correct answer: A persecutory delusion

A fixed false belief that an organization is monitoring or controlling the person is a classic persecutory delusion.

Question 7: A patient is diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which symptom cluster is unique to PTSD?

Generalized worry about multiple life domains
Intrusive symptoms such as flashbacks and nightmares related to the trauma (Correct answer)
Compulsive rituals to reduce anxiety
Persistent depressed mood and anhedonia

Correct answer: Intrusive symptoms such as flashbacks and nightmares related to the trauma

Intrusive re-experiencing symptoms (flashbacks, nightmares, intrusive memories of the trauma) are the hallmark of PTSD and distinguish it from other anxiety disorders.

Question 8: Which patient position is most appropriate for a client receiving a nasogastric tube feeding?

Trendelenburg position
Semi-Fowler's at 30–45 degrees (Correct answer)
Supine with head flat
Left lateral Sims' position

Correct answer: Semi-Fowler's at 30–45 degrees

Semi-Fowler's position at 30–45 degrees reduces aspiration risk during enteral feedings.

Question 9: A nurse is teaching a new mother about sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) prevention. Which instruction is most important?

Keep the infant in a separate room from birth
Always place the infant supine (on back) to sleep (Correct answer)
Use a soft mattress with bumper pads in the crib
Place the infant prone to sleep to prevent aspiration

Correct answer: Always place the infant supine (on back) to sleep

The 'Back to Sleep' campaign recommends placing infants on their backs on a firm surface to reduce SIDS risk.

Question 10: A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter. Which step should be performed first?

Open the sterile catheter kit
Cleanse the urinary meatus
Apply sterile gloves
Explain the procedure to the patient (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Explain the procedure to the patient

Patient education and consent must occur before initiating any invasive procedure.

Question 11: A mother is Rh-negative and delivers an Rh-positive newborn. The nurse should administer RhoGAM within:

24 hours of delivery
1 week of delivery
48 hours of delivery
72 hours of delivery (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 72 hours of delivery

RhoGAM (Rh immune globulin) must be administered within 72 hours of delivery to prevent Rh sensitization.

Question 12: Which electrolyte is most important for regulating fluid balance inside cells (intracellular fluid)?

Sodium
Calcium
Potassium (Correct answer)
Chloride

Correct answer: Potassium

Potassium is the primary intracellular cation and plays the key role in regulating fluid balance within cells.

Question 13: What is the correct needle angle for an intramuscular (IM) injection?

45 degrees
90 degrees (Correct answer)
10–15 degrees
60 degrees

Correct answer: 90 degrees

IM injections are administered at a 90-degree angle to ensure the medication reaches the muscle tissue.

Question 14: A patient undergoes a colostomy. Which stool output description indicates the ostomy is functioning normally?

Blood-tinged output on postoperative day 1
Liquid green stool from a sigmoid colostomy
No output for 48 hours
Soft, formed stool from a sigmoid colostomy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Soft, formed stool from a sigmoid colostomy

A sigmoid colostomy produces soft, formed stool similar to normal bowel movements because it is located in the distal colon.

Question 15: A nurse is completing a suicide risk assessment. Which factor represents the highest risk?

Moderate depression with good social support
Previous suicide attempt with a lethal method (Correct answer)
Report of occasional hopelessness
Passive ideation without a plan

Correct answer: Previous suicide attempt with a lethal method

A history of previous suicide attempts, especially with a lethal method, is the strongest predictor of future suicide completion.

Question 16: A nurse is changing a wound dressing. Which action maintains sterile technique?

Placing sterile items 1 inch from the edge of the sterile drape
Wearing clean (non-sterile) gloves throughout
Reaching across the sterile field to retrieve supplies
Keeping the sterile field in view at all times (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Keeping the sterile field in view at all times

The sterile field must remain in constant view to ensure it is not contaminated.

Question 17: Which strategy is most effective for improving HCAHPS (patient satisfaction) scores related to nurse communication?

Increase the number of staff on each shift
Use hourly rounding to proactively address patient needs (Correct answer)
Provide patients with printed satisfaction surveys at admission
Limit patient call light use to reduce unnecessary interactions

Correct answer: Use hourly rounding to proactively address patient needs

Hourly rounding proactively addresses patient needs, reduces call lights, and improves communication scores on HCAHPS surveys.

Question 18: Which action should a nurse take when a patient's peripheral IV site shows redness, warmth, and swelling?

Discontinue the IV and start a new site (Correct answer)
Document and continue to monitor
Slow the infusion rate
Apply a warm compress and continue infusion

Correct answer: Discontinue the IV and start a new site

Signs of phlebitis (redness, warmth, swelling) require immediate discontinuation of the IV and insertion at a new site.

Question 19: A patient who has been taking lithium for bipolar disorder presents with coarse hand tremors, polyuria, and confusion. The nurse suspects:

Normal side effects at steady state
Subtherapeutic lithium levels
Lithium toxicity (Correct answer)
Lithium withdrawal syndrome

Correct answer: Lithium toxicity

Coarse tremors (not fine), polyuria, and confusion indicate lithium toxicity, which requires immediate intervention.

Question 20: A nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which dietary restriction is most important to implement?

Increase protein intake
Restrict phosphorus and potassium (Correct answer)
Limit vitamin C intake
Increase sodium intake

Correct answer: Restrict phosphorus and potassium

In CKD, impaired kidney function leads to accumulation of phosphorus and potassium, making dietary restriction of these minerals essential.

Question 21: A nurse is assigned to care for four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first?

A patient with stable COPD requesting a breathing treatment
A new admission awaiting a room assignment
A postoperative patient reporting increasing pain rated 7/10
A patient who had a seizure 30 minutes ago and is now postictal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A patient who had a seizure 30 minutes ago and is now postictal

A postictal patient after a seizure requires immediate assessment for airway patency, injury, and neurological status — safety takes priority.

Question 22: A client is placed in contact precautions. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) must the nurse don before entering the room?

Mask and eye shield only
Gloves only
Gloves and gown (Correct answer)
N95 respirator and gloves

Correct answer: Gloves and gown

Contact precautions require gloves and a gown to prevent transmission of pathogens via direct or indirect contact.

Question 23: A patient in the manic phase of bipolar I disorder is hyperverbal, going without sleep, and spending money recklessly. Which priority nursing diagnosis applies?

Social isolation related to withdrawal behaviors
Chronic low self-esteem related to negative self-talk
Risk for injury related to impaired judgment and hyperactivity (Correct answer)
Disturbed sleep pattern related to depression

Correct answer: Risk for injury related to impaired judgment and hyperactivity

During a manic episode, impaired judgment and hyperactivity create significant safety risks, making 'risk for injury' the priority diagnosis.

Question 24: Which action demonstrates appropriate use of the chain of command?

Going directly to the hospital CEO with a patient complaint
Documenting concerns only in the medical record without verbal notification
Expressing concern to the charge nurse, then the supervisor, when a physician does not respond to a safety concern (Correct answer)
Reporting a peer's performance directly to the state board

Correct answer: Expressing concern to the charge nurse, then the supervisor, when a physician does not respond to a safety concern

The chain of command requires escalating safety concerns through the organizational hierarchy — charge nurse → supervisor → higher leadership.

Question 25: A patient is 36 weeks pregnant and has a blood pressure of 158/104 mmHg with 3+ proteinuria. The nurse should prepare for management of:

Chronic hypertension
Gestational hypertension
Severe preeclampsia (Correct answer)
HELLP syndrome

Correct answer: Severe preeclampsia

BP ≥160/110 with significant proteinuria at or after 20 weeks gestation meets criteria for severe preeclampsia.

Question 26: A client asks a nurse about the primary function of carbohydrates in the body. Which response is most accurate?

Regulating fluid and electrolyte balance
Transporting fat-soluble vitamins
Providing the primary source of energy (Correct answer)
Building and repairing body tissues

Correct answer: Providing the primary source of energy

Carbohydrates are the body's preferred and primary fuel source, especially for the brain and red blood cells.

Question 27: A breastfeeding mother asks how to know if her newborn is getting enough milk. The best indicator is:

The infant sleeps for 4 hours between feedings
The infant finishes each feeding in under 5 minutes
The mother's breasts feel soft after feeding
6–8 wet diapers per day by day 4–5 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 6–8 wet diapers per day by day 4–5

Six to eight wet diapers per day after milk comes in (day 4–5) confirms adequate newborn hydration and intake.

Question 28: For this entire semester, I've been playing and having fun every day. My studies are not going well. However, I believe I can score an A for the exam next week'. What is the mistake that the person has committed here with respect to critical thinking?

Self-confident thinking
Moral subjectivism
Wishful thinking (Correct answer)
Egocentrism

Correct answer: Wishful thinking

The mistake that the person has committed here with respect to critical thinking is wishful thinking. Wishful thinking refers to forming beliefs or making decisions based on what one wishes were true rather than on evidence or rational thinking. In this case, the person believes they can score an A for the exam next week despite their studies not going well throughout the semester, which is an example of wishful thinking as it is based on their desire rather than a realistic assessment of their abilities and preparation.

Question 29: A nurse is measuring a client's blood pressure and notices the cuff is too small. What effect will this have on the reading?

No effect on the reading
Irregular pulse waveform only
Falsely low reading
Falsely high reading (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Falsely high reading

A cuff that is too small will produce a falsely elevated blood pressure reading.

Question 30: Lecturer: You all should focus on this section. It's a critical section that requires a lot of thought and review. Peter: Ah, I know everything. This section is not a problem for me. I don't need to learn this. What mistake has Peter committed here with respect to critical thinking?

Self-serving bias (Correct answer)
Group bias
Moral subjectivism
Relativistic thinking

Correct answer: Self-serving bias

Peter has committed the mistake of self-serving bias. Self-serving bias is a cognitive bias where individuals tend to attribute their successes to internal factors and their failures to external factors. In this case, Peter is overconfident in his abilities and believes that he already knows everything in the critical section, dismissing the need to learn and review it. This bias prevents him from objectively assessing his own knowledge and skills, potentially leading to a lack of effort and preparation in a section that actually requires it.

Question 31: A patient with COPD is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which oxygen flow rate is safest to start with?

6 L/min via simple face mask
10 L/min via non-rebreather mask
15 L/min via bag-valve mask
1–2 L/min via nasal cannula (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1–2 L/min via nasal cannula

Patients with COPD rely on hypoxic drive; high-flow oxygen can suppress respiratory drive, so low-flow 1–2 L/min is safest.

Question 32: A patient with borderline personality disorder repeatedly calls the nursing station requesting different nurses. The most therapeutic response is to:

Maintain consistent staff assignments and clear limits (Correct answer)
Ignore the requests to extinguish the behavior
Medicate the patient with a PRN sedative
Accommodate each request to build therapeutic alliance

Correct answer: Maintain consistent staff assignments and clear limits

Consistency and limit-setting are the cornerstones of care for borderline personality disorder to address splitting behavior.

Question 33: A nurse manager uses a 'just culture' framework. This means:

All errors are reported to regulatory agencies immediately
Only senior nurses are evaluated for performance errors
Accountability is balanced between individual behavior and system failures (Correct answer)
Nurses are never disciplined for mistakes

Correct answer: Accountability is balanced between individual behavior and system failures

Just culture distinguishes between human error (system fix), at-risk behavior (coaching), and reckless behavior (discipline), balancing accountability with learning.

Question 34: Which nursing action is the priority when a prolapsed umbilical cord is identified?

Apply warm saline-soaked gauze to the cord
Place the patient in Trendelenburg or knee-chest position (Correct answer)
Notify the charge nurse and document findings
Prepare the patient for an emergency cesarean section

Correct answer: Place the patient in Trendelenburg or knee-chest position

The priority is relieving cord compression by positioning (Trendelenburg or knee-chest) while calling for emergency assistance.

Question 35: A client is prescribed a potassium-restricted diet. Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

White bread
Iceberg lettuce
White rice
Bananas (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bananas

Bananas are high in potassium and should be avoided by clients on a potassium-restricted diet.

Question 36: A nurse is about to administer a medication. Which of the following is the MINIMUM number of patient identifiers that should be used?

One
Three
Four
Two (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Two

At least two patient identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth) must be verified before administering any medication per The Joint Commission standards.

Question 37: A 3-year-old is brought to the ED after ingesting an unknown substance. What is the nurse's first action?

Contact Poison Control (1-800-222-1222) (Correct answer)
Induce vomiting immediately
Perform gastric lavage
Administer activated charcoal

Correct answer: Contact Poison Control (1-800-222-1222)

Poison Control (1-800-222-1222) should be called immediately to get expert guidance on whether and how to treat the ingestion.

Question 38: Which immunization is recommended at birth before hospital discharge in the United States?

DTaP
MMR
Hepatitis B vaccine (first dose) (Correct answer)
Varicella vaccine

Correct answer: Hepatitis B vaccine (first dose)

The first dose of Hepatitis B vaccine is routinely given to newborns within 24 hours of birth per CDC/AAP guidelines.

Question 39: A charge nurse is using transformational leadership. Which behavior best exemplifies this style?

Inspiring staff through a shared vision and mentoring professional growth (Correct answer)
Making all decisions unilaterally to maintain efficiency
Assigning tasks based on rules and offering incentives for compliance
Focusing primarily on error identification and correction

Correct answer: Inspiring staff through a shared vision and mentoring professional growth

Transformational leadership motivates staff through inspiration, shared vision, and fostering professional development rather than through rewards and punishments.

Question 40: What is usually the most important question you can ask in any given situation?

Who is responsible?
How much money can I make?
Why? (Correct answer)
Can I accomplish this?

Correct answer: Why?

In any given situation, asking "Why?" is usually the most important question because it helps to understand the underlying reasons and motivations behind actions or decisions. By asking "Why?", one can gain a deeper insight into the situation, identify possible causes or factors, and make informed judgments or decisions based on a better understanding of the context. It allows for critical thinking, problem-solving, and evaluating the significance or implications of the situation at hand.

Question 41: A nurse witnesses a colleague make a medication error that caused patient harm. The nurse should first:

Report the colleague to the state board of nursing
Confront the colleague privately and tell them to self-report
Assess the patient and notify the physician, then complete an incident report (Correct answer)
Document the error in the medical record with the colleague's name

Correct answer: Assess the patient and notify the physician, then complete an incident report

Patient safety is the first priority — assess the patient, notify the provider, then complete the required incident report.

Question 42: A nurse is caring for a patient post-thyroidectomy. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Soft diet tolerance
Mild throat discomfort
Positive Chvostek's sign (Correct answer)
Serum calcium of 9.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: Positive Chvostek's sign

A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, a life-threatening complication after thyroidectomy due to inadvertent parathyroid removal.

Question 43: When assessing a patient's pain, which tool is most appropriate for a non-verbal patient?

Visual Analog Scale (VAS)
FACES Pain Scale
FLACC Behavioral Scale (Correct answer)
Numeric Rating Scale (NRS 0–10)

Correct answer: FLACC Behavioral Scale

The FLACC scale assesses pain through observable behaviors (face, legs, activity, cry, consolability) in non-verbal patients.

Question 44: A nurse discovers a patient fell while under the care of another nurse. Which document should never be referenced in the medical record?

Physician progress notes
Incident/variance report (Correct answer)
Nursing notes about the fall
Vital signs obtained after the fall

Correct answer: Incident/variance report

Incident reports are internal quality documents; referencing them in the medical record makes them discoverable in litigation, violating their protected status.

Question 45: A hospital is implementing a new electronic health record (EHR) system. Which change management strategy is most effective?

Involve frontline nurses in the design and rollout process (Correct answer)
Implement changes in secret to reduce resistance
Announce the change only after the system is live
Mandate immediate system adoption with no training period

Correct answer: Involve frontline nurses in the design and rollout process

Involving end-users in design and implementation increases buy-in, identifies workflow issues early, and improves adoption success.

Question 46: A nurse is assessing a client with suspected scurvy. Which clinical finding is most characteristic of this condition?

Muscle cramps and numbness
Bone pain and bowing of the legs
Dermatitis and dementia
Bleeding gums and poor wound healing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bleeding gums and poor wound healing

Scurvy results from vitamin C deficiency and is characterized by impaired collagen synthesis, leading to bleeding gums and poor wound healing.

Question 47: Select the element which is not part of the critical thinking standards.

Completeness
Relativistic thinking (Correct answer)
Clarity
Relevance

Correct answer: Relativistic thinking

Relativistic thinking is not part of the critical thinking standards because critical thinking focuses on objective analysis and evaluation of information, while relativistic thinking is subjective and based on personal opinions and perspectives. The other three options - clarity, relevance, and completeness - are all important standards in critical thinking that involve clear communication, logical connections, and comprehensive understanding of the subject matter.

Question 48: A patient with OCD spends 3 hours each morning washing their hands until bleeding occurs. The most evidence-based therapeutic approach is:

Supportive therapy and allowing the rituals for comfort
Psychoanalysis to uncover childhood trauma
Systematic desensitization using visual imagery only
Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) therapy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) therapy

Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) is the gold-standard psychotherapy for OCD, gradually exposing the patient to triggers without allowing compulsive rituals.

Question 49: A newborn has not passed meconium within 48 hours of birth. The nurse should assess for:

Hyperbilirubinemia
Dehydration
Neonatal abstinence syndrome
Hirschsprung's disease or imperforate anus (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hirschsprung's disease or imperforate anus

Failure to pass meconium within 24–48 hours suggests intestinal obstruction such as Hirschsprung's disease or imperforate anus.

Question 50: Which finding in a patient at 34 weeks gestation is consistent with preterm labor?

Fetal movement of 10 kicks in 2 hours
Mild lower back ache after prolonged standing
Braxton Hicks contractions that stop with hydration
Regular contractions every 5 minutes with cervical dilation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Regular contractions every 5 minutes with cervical dilation

Regular contractions with documented cervical change before 37 weeks defines preterm labor.

Question 51: A newborn's blood glucose is 38 mg/dL at 2 hours of age. What is the priority nursing action?

Offer early breastfeeding or formula feeding (Correct answer)
Administer glucagon intramuscularly
Initiate IV dextrose infusion
Recheck in 1 hour and document

Correct answer: Offer early breastfeeding or formula feeding

For asymptomatic neonatal hypoglycemia, the first intervention is early feeding (breast or formula) to raise blood glucose.

Question 52: Which assessment finding in a newborn is associated with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

Nasal flaring and grunting on expiration (Correct answer)
Oxygen saturation of 96% on room air
Respiratory rate of 38 breaths/min
Pink color with acrocyanosis only

Correct answer: Nasal flaring and grunting on expiration

Nasal flaring and expiratory grunting are classic signs of RDS, indicating the infant is working hard to keep alveoli open.

Question 53: A nurse is assessing a child with a suspected head injury. Which finding indicates increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a child?

Hyperthermia and diaphoresis
Tachycardia and hypotension
Decreased respiratory rate only
Bradycardia, widening pulse pressure, and irregular respirations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bradycardia, widening pulse pressure, and irregular respirations

Cushing's triad — bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, and irregular breathing — is the classic sign of dangerously elevated ICP.

Question 54: A child with Type 1 diabetes has a blood glucose of 52 mg/dL and is conscious. The nurse should first:

Administer glucagon intramuscularly
Hold the next insulin dose
Give 4 oz (120 mL) of juice or another 15 g fast-acting carbohydrate (Correct answer)
Start an IV and administer D50W

Correct answer: Give 4 oz (120 mL) of juice or another 15 g fast-acting carbohydrate

For a conscious child with mild hypoglycemia, the 'Rule of 15' applies: give 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate and recheck in 15 minutes.

Question 55: A nurse assesses a newborn's skin and finds a yellowish discoloration at 12 hours of age. This is best described as:

Mongolian spots requiring documentation only
Erythema toxicum, a benign rash
Physiologic jaundice, which is normal at this time
Pathologic jaundice, which requires evaluation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pathologic jaundice, which requires evaluation

Jaundice appearing within the first 24 hours of life is pathologic, not physiologic, and requires immediate evaluation for hemolytic disease.

Question 56: A nurse is concerned about a physician's order that seems unsafe. Using SBAR, what does the 'R' stand for?

Reason
Recommendation (Correct answer)
Response
Reassessment

Correct answer: Recommendation

In the SBAR communication tool, 'R' stands for Recommendation — what the nurse is requesting or suggesting the provider do.

Question 57: A patient is prescribed clozapine for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. Which lab value must be monitored regularly due to the risk of a life-threatening adverse effect?

Serum lithium level
Liver function tests only
White blood cell count (WBC) (Correct answer)
Serum creatinine

Correct answer: White blood cell count (WBC)

Clozapine carries a black box warning for agranulocytosis; regular WBC monitoring is mandatory through the REMS program.

Question 58: A nurse delegates morning baths to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). The nurse retains responsibility for:

Documenting that the bath was completed by the UAP
Completing the bath if the UAP is busy
Supervising the task and evaluating patient outcomes (Correct answer)
Nothing, since the task was properly delegated

Correct answer: Supervising the task and evaluating patient outcomes

Delegation transfers the task but not the accountability — the nurse is responsible for supervision and verifying patient outcomes.

Question 59: Which nursing response is most therapeutic when a patient in crisis says, 'I have nothing to live for'?

'I hear you — it sounds like you're in a lot of pain. Can you tell me more?' (Correct answer)
'You have so much to be grateful for.'
'Things will get better — you'll see.'
'Why do you feel that way?'

Correct answer: 'I hear you — it sounds like you're in a lot of pain. Can you tell me more?'

Therapeutic communication involves acknowledging the patient's feelings and inviting them to share more without minimizing their experience.

Question 60: At what gestational age is a fetus considered to be at full term by current ACOG definitions?

38 0/7 weeks
37 0/7 weeks
40 0/7 weeks
39 0/7 weeks (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 39 0/7 weeks

ACOG defines full term as 39 0/7 to 40 6/7 weeks; 37–38 weeks is now classified as early term.

Question 61: Which action by a nurse is an example of advocacy?

Administering medications as prescribed without questioning
Completing documentation on time
Informing a patient of their right to refuse a recommended procedure (Correct answer)
Refusing to speak with a patient's family without consent

Correct answer: Informing a patient of their right to refuse a recommended procedure

Advocacy involves ensuring patients are informed of their rights and supported in exercising them, including the right to refuse treatment.

Question 62: Which nursing action best demonstrates the principle of beneficence?

Distributing resources fairly among patients
Administering analgesics to relieve a client's pain (Correct answer)
Maintaining a client's confidentiality
Allowing a client to refuse treatment

Correct answer: Administering analgesics to relieve a client's pain

Beneficence means acting in the best interest of the patient, such as providing pain relief.

Question 63: A nurse must document a medication error. Which entry is most appropriate?

'Patient given wrong drug but appears fine'
'Charting done per policy'
'Error made by night nurse'
'Wrong medication given; incident report filed; physician notified; patient assessed' (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 'Wrong medication given; incident report filed; physician notified; patient assessed'

Accurate documentation of a medication error includes the facts, interventions taken, notifications, and patient assessment.

Question 64: What is the exact problem with relativistic thinking?

There is no problem at all.
Relativistic thinking promotes a view that something is the truth because it is the truth in my point of view. (Correct answer)
Relativistic thinking promotes absolute truth.
Relativistic thinking always promotes group opinions.

Correct answer: Relativistic thinking promotes a view that something is the truth because it is the truth in my point of view.

Relativistic thinking promotes a view that something is the truth because it is the truth in my point of view. This is problematic because it disregards objective truth and allows for subjective beliefs to be considered as valid and equal to factual evidence. It undermines the importance of evidence-based reasoning and critical thinking, leading to a lack of accountability and the potential for misinformation to be accepted as truth.

Question 65: A newly licensed nurse is overwhelmed during a busy shift. What is the most appropriate action for the charge nurse to take?

Reassign all of the new nurse's patients to experienced staff
Document the new nurse's inability to manage the assignment
Assess the new nurse's workload and offer to help reprioritize tasks (Correct answer)
Inform the nurse to manage their time better

Correct answer: Assess the new nurse's workload and offer to help reprioritize tasks

Supportive leadership involves assessing the situation and helping the new nurse prioritize effectively, promoting learning and ensuring patient safety.

Question 66: Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Contact precautions
Protective environment
Droplet precautions
Airborne precautions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Airborne precautions

Pulmonary TB is transmitted via airborne particles (droplet nuclei <5 microns), requiring airborne precautions and a negative-pressure room.

Question 67: A client's urine output over 8 hours is 200 mL. The nurse should recognize this as:

Anuria
Normal output
Oliguria (Correct answer)
Polyuria

Correct answer: Oliguria

Oliguria is defined as urine output less than 400 mL in 24 hours (or less than 30 mL/hour).

Question 68: What describes the action of a drug on the body?

Microbiology
Pharmacodynamics (Correct answer)
Pharmacokinetics
Physiology

Correct answer: Pharmacodynamics

Pharmacodynamics refers to the study of how a drug interacts with the body and produces its effects. It involves understanding the mechanisms of action, the biochemical and physiological effects, and the relationship between drug concentration and its effect on the body. This includes studying the drug-receptor interactions, signal transduction pathways, and the overall impact on the body's functions. Therefore, pharmacodynamics accurately describes the action of a drug on the body.

Question 69: Postpartum depression differs from 'baby blues' in that it:

Resolves spontaneously within 2 weeks
Occurs within the first 72 hours after delivery
Persists beyond 2 weeks and requires treatment (Correct answer)
Is characterized only by irritability, not sadness

Correct answer: Persists beyond 2 weeks and requires treatment

PPD persists beyond 2 weeks postpartum and often requires pharmacologic and/or psychological treatment, unlike transient baby blues.

Question 70: A nurse is preparing to transfer a patient from bed to wheelchair. Which action is the priority?

Ask a colleague to assist
Lock the wheelchair wheels (Correct answer)
Instruct the patient on the transfer technique
Place the wheelchair parallel to the bed

Correct answer: Lock the wheelchair wheels

Locking the wheelchair wheels is the priority safety action to prevent it from rolling during transfer.

ATI Nursing Proctored Assessment

ATI (Assessment Technologies Institute) nursing proctored assessments evaluate nursing students' knowledge across core clinical subjects including fundamentals, medical-surgical, maternal-newborn, and leadership and management, in preparation for NCLEX-RN licensure.

Questions

70 min

Time Limit

65%

To Pass

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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

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