ATI Nursing Proctored Assessment — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A nurse receives a verbal order from a physician by phone. What is the appropriate action?
- Have another nurse listen and co-sign the verbal order before acting
- Refuse the verbal order and request written orders only
- Repeat the order back to the physician to confirm accuracy, then document (Correct answer)
- Carry out the order immediately and document later
Correct answer: Repeat the order back to the physician to confirm accuracy, then document
Read-back of verbal/telephone orders is the required safety practice to prevent transcription errors before carrying out the order.
Question 2: A client asks the nurse why they should choose whole grain bread over white bread. Which is the most accurate nutritional benefit of whole grains?
- Lower in complex carbohydrates
- Higher in fiber and B vitamins (Correct answer)
- Higher in sodium content
- Higher in saturated fat
Correct answer: Higher in fiber and B vitamins
Whole grains retain the bran and germ layers, which are rich in dietary fiber, B vitamins, and minerals that are lost during the refining process.
Question 3: A nurse manager notices that staff consistently skip the patient identification step before medication administration. The best management strategy is:
- Terminate staff who do not comply
- Conduct a root cause analysis and implement system-level safeguards (Correct answer)
- Post warning signs at the medication cart
- Send a memo reminding staff of the policy
Correct answer: Conduct a root cause analysis and implement system-level safeguards
Root cause analysis identifies systemic factors contributing to errors, enabling system-level improvements that are more effective than individual blame.
Question 4: A nurse is about to administer a medication. Which of the following is the MINIMUM number of patient identifiers that should be used?
- Two (Correct answer)
- Four
- Three
- One
Correct answer: Two
At least two patient identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth) must be verified before administering any medication per The Joint Commission standards.
Question 5: A nurse is concerned about a physician's order that seems unsafe. Using SBAR, what does the 'R' stand for?
- Reason
- Response
- Recommendation (Correct answer)
- Reassessment
Correct answer: Recommendation
In the SBAR communication tool, 'R' stands for Recommendation — what the nurse is requesting or suggesting the provider do.
Question 6: A nurse is planning care for five patients. Using the concept of prioritization, which patient has the highest priority?
- A patient requesting a warm blanket
- A patient awaiting a routine blood draw
- A patient scheduled for discharge teaching
- A patient with SpO2 of 88% on 2 L/min nasal cannula (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A patient with SpO2 of 88% on 2 L/min nasal cannula
An SpO2 of 88% represents dangerous hypoxemia requiring immediate intervention to maintain oxygenation.
Question 7: A nurse is assigned to care for four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A new admission awaiting a room assignment
- A patient with stable COPD requesting a breathing treatment
- A postoperative patient reporting increasing pain rated 7/10
- A patient who had a seizure 30 minutes ago and is now postictal (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A patient who had a seizure 30 minutes ago and is now postictal
A postictal patient after a seizure requires immediate assessment for airway patency, injury, and neurological status — safety takes priority.
Question 8: A patient is prescribed clozapine for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. Which lab value must be monitored regularly due to the risk of a life-threatening adverse effect?
- White blood cell count (WBC) (Correct answer)
- Serum lithium level
- Serum creatinine
- Liver function tests only
Correct answer: White blood cell count (WBC)
Clozapine carries a black box warning for agranulocytosis; regular WBC monitoring is mandatory through the REMS program.
Question 9: A patient is 36 weeks pregnant and has a blood pressure of 158/104 mmHg with 3+ proteinuria. The nurse should prepare for management of:
- HELLP syndrome
- Severe preeclampsia (Correct answer)
- Chronic hypertension
- Gestational hypertension
Correct answer: Severe preeclampsia
BP ≥160/110 with significant proteinuria at or after 20 weeks gestation meets criteria for severe preeclampsia.
Question 10: Which assessment finding in a patient with acute appendicitis indicates perforation has occurred?
- Right lower quadrant pain on palpation
- Sudden relief of pain followed by diffuse abdominal rigidity (Correct answer)
- Low-grade fever and nausea
- Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point
Correct answer: Sudden relief of pain followed by diffuse abdominal rigidity
A sudden brief relief of pain followed by diffuse, board-like rigidity suggests the appendix has ruptured and peritonitis is developing.
Question 11: Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis?
- Contact precautions
- Airborne precautions (Correct answer)
- Protective environment
- Droplet precautions
Correct answer: Airborne precautions
Pulmonary TB is transmitted via airborne particles (droplet nuclei <5 microns), requiring airborne precautions and a negative-pressure room.
Question 12: What is the exact problem with relativistic thinking?
- There is no problem at all.
- Relativistic thinking promotes a view that something is the truth because it is the truth in my point of view. (Correct answer)
- Relativistic thinking always promotes group opinions.
- Relativistic thinking promotes absolute truth.
Correct answer: Relativistic thinking promotes a view that something is the truth because it is the truth in my point of view.
Relativistic thinking promotes a view that something is the truth because it is the truth in my point of view. This is problematic because it disregards objective truth and allows for subjective beliefs to be considered as valid and equal to factual evidence. It undermines the importance of evidence-based reasoning and critical thinking, leading to a lack of accountability and the potential for misinformation to be accepted as truth.
Question 13: Which action should a nurse take when a patient's peripheral IV site shows redness, warmth, and swelling?
- Document and continue to monitor
- Slow the infusion rate
- Apply a warm compress and continue infusion
- Discontinue the IV and start a new site (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Discontinue the IV and start a new site
Signs of phlebitis (redness, warmth, swelling) require immediate discontinuation of the IV and insertion at a new site.
Question 14: Which nursing action best demonstrates the principle of beneficence?
- Allowing a client to refuse treatment
- Distributing resources fairly among patients
- Administering analgesics to relieve a client's pain (Correct answer)
- Maintaining a client's confidentiality
Correct answer: Administering analgesics to relieve a client's pain
Beneficence means acting in the best interest of the patient, such as providing pain relief.
Question 15: What describes the action of a drug on the body?
- Physiology
- Microbiology
- Pharmacodynamics (Correct answer)
- Pharmacokinetics
Correct answer: Pharmacodynamics
Pharmacodynamics refers to the study of how a drug interacts with the body and produces its effects. It involves understanding the mechanisms of action, the biochemical and physiological effects, and the relationship between drug concentration and its effect on the body. This includes studying the drug-receptor interactions, signal transduction pathways, and the overall impact on the body's functions. Therefore, pharmacodynamics accurately describes the action of a drug on the body.
Question 16: Which assessment finding in a newborn is associated with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
- Nasal flaring and grunting on expiration (Correct answer)
- Pink color with acrocyanosis only
- Respiratory rate of 38 breaths/min
- Oxygen saturation of 96% on room air
Correct answer: Nasal flaring and grunting on expiration
Nasal flaring and expiratory grunting are classic signs of RDS, indicating the infant is working hard to keep alveoli open.
Question 17: A nurse is administering a medication to a 4-year-old child. Which approach is most developmentally appropriate?
- Explain the drug mechanism and its importance
- Give the child a choice between two acceptable options (e.g., cup or spoon) (Correct answer)
- Tell the child they will get a shot if they refuse
- Tell the child the medicine will not hurt at all
Correct answer: Give the child a choice between two acceptable options (e.g., cup or spoon)
Offering limited choices gives preschoolers a sense of control, improving cooperation without dishonesty or threats.
Question 18: A nurse is caring for a child with nephrotic syndrome. Which finding is most characteristic?
- Elevated BUN and creatinine with oliguria
- Hematuria and hypertension
- Flank pain and dysuria
- Massive proteinuria and generalized edema (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Massive proteinuria and generalized edema
Nephrotic syndrome is defined by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and generalized edema (including periorbital).
Question 19: A nurse is preparing to transfer a patient from bed to wheelchair. Which action is the priority?
- Lock the wheelchair wheels (Correct answer)
- Instruct the patient on the transfer technique
- Ask a colleague to assist
- Place the wheelchair parallel to the bed
Correct answer: Lock the wheelchair wheels
Locking the wheelchair wheels is the priority safety action to prevent it from rolling during transfer.
Question 20: A newborn's blood glucose is 38 mg/dL at 2 hours of age. What is the priority nursing action?
- Initiate IV dextrose infusion
- Offer early breastfeeding or formula feeding (Correct answer)
- Recheck in 1 hour and document
- Administer glucagon intramuscularly
Correct answer: Offer early breastfeeding or formula feeding
For asymptomatic neonatal hypoglycemia, the first intervention is early feeding (breast or formula) to raise blood glucose.
Question 21: A patient with type 1 diabetes is found unconscious with a blood glucose of 38 mg/dL. What is the priority intervention?
- Administer subcutaneous insulin
- Give 15 g of oral carbohydrate
- Notify the physician and wait for orders
- Administer IV dextrose 50% (D50W) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Administer IV dextrose 50% (D50W)
An unconscious patient with severe hypoglycemia cannot take oral glucose — IV dextrose (D50W) must be administered immediately.
Question 22: A nurse is assessing a newborn at 1 minute after birth. The infant has a heart rate of 90 bpm, weak cry, some flexion, grimace to stimulation, and blue hands and feet. What is the APGAR score?
- 7
- 8
- 6 (Correct answer)
- 5
Correct answer: 6
HR <100 (1) + weak cry (1) + some flexion (1) + grimace (1) + acrocyanosis (1) = APGAR score of 6.
Question 23: A nurse is changing a wound dressing. Which action maintains sterile technique?
- Keeping the sterile field in view at all times (Correct answer)
- Wearing clean (non-sterile) gloves throughout
- Reaching across the sterile field to retrieve supplies
- Placing sterile items 1 inch from the edge of the sterile drape
Correct answer: Keeping the sterile field in view at all times
The sterile field must remain in constant view to ensure it is not contaminated.
Question 24: Which patient position is most appropriate for a client receiving a nasogastric tube feeding?
- Supine with head flat
- Left lateral Sims' position
- Semi-Fowler's at 30–45 degrees (Correct answer)
- Trendelenburg position
Correct answer: Semi-Fowler's at 30–45 degrees
Semi-Fowler's position at 30–45 degrees reduces aspiration risk during enteral feedings.
Question 25: What is the correct needle angle for an intramuscular (IM) injection?
- 10–15 degrees
- 90 degrees (Correct answer)
- 60 degrees
- 45 degrees
Correct answer: 90 degrees
IM injections are administered at a 90-degree angle to ensure the medication reaches the muscle tissue.
Question 26: What is the worst thing for a critical thinker?
- Reaching to conclusion too soon. (Correct answer)
- None of the above
- An emotional mind
- A logical mind
Correct answer: Reaching to conclusion too soon.
A critical thinker values evidence, reasoning, and careful analysis before reaching a conclusion. Reaching a conclusion too soon can hinder the critical thinking process as it may overlook important information or alternative perspectives. It is important for a critical thinker to consider all available evidence and evaluate different possibilities before coming to a final decision.
Question 27: A nurse is caring for a patient in active labor receiving magnesium sulfate. Which finding signals toxicity?
- Respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min
- Urinary output of 35 mL/hr
- Loss of deep tendon reflexes (Correct answer)
- Mild flushing and warmth
Correct answer: Loss of deep tendon reflexes
Loss of deep tendon reflexes (DTR) is an early sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity and must prompt immediate action.
Question 28: A newborn has not passed meconium within 48 hours of birth. The nurse should assess for:
- Dehydration
- Neonatal abstinence syndrome
- Hyperbilirubinemia
- Hirschsprung's disease or imperforate anus (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Hirschsprung's disease or imperforate anus
Failure to pass meconium within 24–48 hours suggests intestinal obstruction such as Hirschsprung's disease or imperforate anus.
Question 29: A hospital is implementing a new electronic health record (EHR) system. Which change management strategy is most effective?
- Announce the change only after the system is live
- Implement changes in secret to reduce resistance
- Involve frontline nurses in the design and rollout process (Correct answer)
- Mandate immediate system adoption with no training period
Correct answer: Involve frontline nurses in the design and rollout process
Involving end-users in design and implementation increases buy-in, identifies workflow issues early, and improves adoption success.
Question 30: Which type of dietary fiber helps lower LDL cholesterol levels by binding bile acids in the intestine?
- Cellulose
- Insoluble fiber
- Lignin
- Soluble fiber (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Soluble fiber
Soluble fiber forms a gel in the GI tract that binds bile acids, reducing their reabsorption and lowering LDL cholesterol.
Question 31: A patient with a fractured hip is in Buck's traction. Which nursing action is most important?
- Place a pillow under the knee of the affected leg
- Maintain continuous traction as ordered (Correct answer)
- Remove weights when repositioning
- Elevate the affected leg 90 degrees
Correct answer: Maintain continuous traction as ordered
Buck's traction must remain continuous to maintain alignment and reduce muscle spasm — weights must never be removed without an order.
ATI Nursing Proctored Assessment
ATI (Assessment Technologies Institute) nursing proctored assessments evaluate nursing students' knowledge across core clinical subjects including fundamentals, medical-surgical, maternal-newborn, and leadership and management, in preparation for NCLEX-RN licensure.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds