ATI Nursing Proctored Assessment — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which of the following are poorly perfused tissues?

None of the above (Correct answer)
Brain
Kidneys
Heart
Liver

Correct answer: None of the above

All of the listed tissues (heart, brain, liver, kidneys) are well perfused, meaning they receive an adequate blood supply. The term "poorly perfused" refers to tissues that do not receive enough blood flow, which can lead to inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery. Therefore, the answer is "none of the above" as none of the listed tissues are poorly perfused.

Question 2: A nurse is preparing to transfer a patient from bed to wheelchair. Which action is the priority?

Place the wheelchair parallel to the bed
Instruct the patient on the transfer technique
Lock the wheelchair wheels (Correct answer)
Ask a colleague to assist

Correct answer: Lock the wheelchair wheels

Locking the wheelchair wheels is the priority safety action to prevent it from rolling during transfer.

Question 3: A nurse is teaching a client about dietary sources of complete proteins. Which food contains all essential amino acids?

Black beans
Chicken breast (Correct answer)
Whole wheat bread
Brown rice

Correct answer: Chicken breast

Chicken breast is an animal-based food that provides all nine essential amino acids, making it a complete protein source.

Question 4: Which nursing response is most therapeutic when a patient in crisis says, 'I have nothing to live for'?

'You have so much to be grateful for.'
'I hear you — it sounds like you're in a lot of pain. Can you tell me more?' (Correct answer)
'Things will get better — you'll see.'
'Why do you feel that way?'

Correct answer: 'I hear you — it sounds like you're in a lot of pain. Can you tell me more?'

Therapeutic communication involves acknowledging the patient's feelings and inviting them to share more without minimizing their experience.

Question 5: A nurse discovers a patient fell while under the care of another nurse. Which document should never be referenced in the medical record?

Vital signs obtained after the fall
Physician progress notes
Nursing notes about the fall
Incident/variance report (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Incident/variance report

Incident reports are internal quality documents; referencing them in the medical record makes them discoverable in litigation, violating their protected status.

Question 6: A client asks the nurse why they should choose whole grain bread over white bread. Which is the most accurate nutritional benefit of whole grains?

Higher in saturated fat
Higher in fiber and B vitamins (Correct answer)
Lower in complex carbohydrates
Higher in sodium content

Correct answer: Higher in fiber and B vitamins

Whole grains retain the bran and germ layers, which are rich in dietary fiber, B vitamins, and minerals that are lost during the refining process.

Question 7: A nurse witnesses a colleague make a medication error that caused patient harm. The nurse should first:

Confront the colleague privately and tell them to self-report
Report the colleague to the state board of nursing
Document the error in the medical record with the colleague's name
Assess the patient and notify the physician, then complete an incident report (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Assess the patient and notify the physician, then complete an incident report

Patient safety is the first priority — assess the patient, notify the provider, then complete the required incident report.

Question 8: Which of the following is a disadvantage of using oral drugs

First pass effect
Overdose overcome by antidotes
A and B (Correct answer)
Low bioavailability
B and C

Correct answer: A and B

The first pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation, which can result in a significant reduction in the drug's bioavailability. This means that a smaller amount of the drug will be available to produce its intended effect. Low bioavailability refers to the percentage of the drug that actually reaches systemic circulation unchanged. Both of these factors can limit the effectiveness of oral drugs compared to other routes of administration.

Question 9: Which patient position is most appropriate for a client receiving a nasogastric tube feeding?

Trendelenburg position
Supine with head flat
Semi-Fowler's at 30–45 degrees (Correct answer)
Left lateral Sims' position

Correct answer: Semi-Fowler's at 30–45 degrees

Semi-Fowler's position at 30–45 degrees reduces aspiration risk during enteral feedings.

Question 10: A client asks a nurse about the primary function of carbohydrates in the body. Which response is most accurate?

Regulating fluid and electrolyte balance
Building and repairing body tissues
Transporting fat-soluble vitamins
Providing the primary source of energy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Providing the primary source of energy

Carbohydrates are the body's preferred and primary fuel source, especially for the brain and red blood cells.

Question 11: A client's urine output over 8 hours is 200 mL. The nurse should recognize this as:

Polyuria
Anuria
Normal output
Oliguria (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Oliguria

Oliguria is defined as urine output less than 400 mL in 24 hours (or less than 30 mL/hour).

Question 12: A newborn has not passed meconium within 48 hours of birth. The nurse should assess for:

Hirschsprung's disease or imperforate anus (Correct answer)
Hyperbilirubinemia
Dehydration
Neonatal abstinence syndrome

Correct answer: Hirschsprung's disease or imperforate anus

Failure to pass meconium within 24–48 hours suggests intestinal obstruction such as Hirschsprung's disease or imperforate anus.

Question 13: Postpartum depression differs from 'baby blues' in that it:

Persists beyond 2 weeks and requires treatment (Correct answer)
Occurs within the first 72 hours after delivery
Resolves spontaneously within 2 weeks
Is characterized only by irritability, not sadness

Correct answer: Persists beyond 2 weeks and requires treatment

PPD persists beyond 2 weeks postpartum and often requires pharmacologic and/or psychological treatment, unlike transient baby blues.

Question 14: A nurse is preparing a school-age child (age 8) for surgery. Which explanation is most appropriate?

'The doctors will put you to sleep and fix things while you sleep.'
'You will receive anesthesia that stops you from feeling pain during the procedure, and you'll wake up in recovery.' (Correct answer)
'We need to do this to keep you alive.'
'Don't worry — you'll be fine and it won't hurt.'

Correct answer: 'You will receive anesthesia that stops you from feeling pain during the procedure, and you'll wake up in recovery.'

School-age children benefit from simple, honest, concrete explanations because they think logically and fear the unknown.

Question 15: A patient in the postpartum period has a boggy uterus and heavy vaginal bleeding. What is the priority nursing action?

Firmly massage the uterine fundus (Correct answer)
Administer oxytocin as ordered
Insert a urinary catheter to decompress the bladder
Notify the obstetrician immediately

Correct answer: Firmly massage the uterine fundus

Uterine massage is the immediate action to stimulate uterine contraction and reduce postpartum hemorrhage from uterine atony.

Question 16: A patient with schizophrenia tells the nurse, 'The CIA has implanted a chip in my brain to monitor my thoughts.' The nurse documents this as:

An auditory hallucination
Thought broadcasting
A persecutory delusion (Correct answer)
A somatic delusion

Correct answer: A persecutory delusion

A fixed false belief that an organization is monitoring or controlling the person is a classic persecutory delusion.

Question 17: Which dietary instruction is most important for a patient with gout?

Avoid high-purine foods like red meat and organ meats (Correct answer)
Increase dairy product consumption
Increase vitamin C supplements only
Limit fluid intake to 1 L per day

Correct answer: Avoid high-purine foods like red meat and organ meats

Purine-rich foods increase uric acid production, which precipitates gout attacks, so they must be limited.

Question 18: A nurse manager notices that staff consistently skip the patient identification step before medication administration. The best management strategy is:

Post warning signs at the medication cart
Conduct a root cause analysis and implement system-level safeguards (Correct answer)
Terminate staff who do not comply
Send a memo reminding staff of the policy

Correct answer: Conduct a root cause analysis and implement system-level safeguards

Root cause analysis identifies systemic factors contributing to errors, enabling system-level improvements that are more effective than individual blame.

Question 19: When performing a bed bath, the nurse should wash the patient in which order?

Back → perineum → chest → face
Face → neck → arms → chest → abdomen → legs → perineum → back (Correct answer)
Legs → abdomen → chest → face → back → perineum
Perineum → face → extremities → back

Correct answer: Face → neck → arms → chest → abdomen → legs → perineum → back

The correct sequence moves from cleanest areas (face) to dirtiest (perineum, back) to prevent contamination.

Question 20: A nurse is planning care for five patients. Using the concept of prioritization, which patient has the highest priority?

A patient awaiting a routine blood draw
A patient scheduled for discharge teaching
A patient requesting a warm blanket
A patient with SpO2 of 88% on 2 L/min nasal cannula (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A patient with SpO2 of 88% on 2 L/min nasal cannula

An SpO2 of 88% represents dangerous hypoxemia requiring immediate intervention to maintain oxygenation.

Question 21: Which vitamin deficiency is most commonly associated with night blindness?

Vitamin D
Vitamin C
Vitamin A (Correct answer)
Vitamin K

Correct answer: Vitamin A

Vitamin A is essential for the production of rhodopsin in the retina, and its deficiency leads to night blindness.

Question 22: A breastfeeding mother asks how to know if her newborn is getting enough milk. The best indicator is:

The mother's breasts feel soft after feeding
6–8 wet diapers per day by day 4–5 (Correct answer)
The infant finishes each feeding in under 5 minutes
The infant sleeps for 4 hours between feedings

Correct answer: 6–8 wet diapers per day by day 4–5

Six to eight wet diapers per day after milk comes in (day 4–5) confirms adequate newborn hydration and intake.

Question 23: What describes the action of a drug on the body?

Physiology
Pharmacodynamics (Correct answer)
Pharmacokinetics
Microbiology

Correct answer: Pharmacodynamics

Pharmacodynamics refers to the study of how a drug interacts with the body and produces its effects. It involves understanding the mechanisms of action, the biochemical and physiological effects, and the relationship between drug concentration and its effect on the body. This includes studying the drug-receptor interactions, signal transduction pathways, and the overall impact on the body's functions. Therefore, pharmacodynamics accurately describes the action of a drug on the body.

Question 24: Which of the following is an example of a 'never event' as defined by the National Quality Forum?

A patient falls while walking to the bathroom
A medication error caught before reaching the patient
A surgical procedure performed on the wrong patient (Correct answer)
Delayed documentation of a routine assessment

Correct answer: A surgical procedure performed on the wrong patient

Never events (serious reportable events) include wrong-patient, wrong-site, and wrong-procedure surgeries, which are entirely preventable.

Question 25: Which assessment finding in a newborn is associated with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

Oxygen saturation of 96% on room air
Nasal flaring and grunting on expiration (Correct answer)
Respiratory rate of 38 breaths/min
Pink color with acrocyanosis only

Correct answer: Nasal flaring and grunting on expiration

Nasal flaring and expiratory grunting are classic signs of RDS, indicating the infant is working hard to keep alveoli open.

Question 26: A client is placed in contact precautions. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) must the nurse don before entering the room?

Gloves only
Gloves and gown (Correct answer)
Mask and eye shield only
N95 respirator and gloves

Correct answer: Gloves and gown

Contact precautions require gloves and a gown to prevent transmission of pathogens via direct or indirect contact.

Question 27: A patient taking warfarin has an INR of 5.8 and no active bleeding. What is the priority nursing action?

Continue current dose and recheck in 24 hours
Administer vitamin K IV push immediately
Hold the next warfarin dose and notify the provider (Correct answer)
Give fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

Correct answer: Hold the next warfarin dose and notify the provider

For supratherapeutic INR without bleeding, the warfarin dose is held and the provider is notified to adjust dosing.

Question 28: What is the definition of critical thinking?

Higher-level thinking that aims to solve a problem.
Finding faults and weaknesses in other people's arguments.
Logically analyzing arguments in a critical way.
Disciplined thinking and judgment. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Disciplined thinking and judgment.

Critical thinking is defined as disciplined thinking that is clear, rational, open-minded, and informed by evidence. It involves analyzing and evaluating information, arguments, or situations in a systematic and logical manner. Critical thinking is not solely about finding faults or weaknesses but rather involves assessing the validity, reliability, and relevance of information and arguments. It includes higher-level thinking that aims to solve problems, make informed decisions, and develop a deeper understanding of complex issues. So, the most comprehensive definition from the provided options would be:

Question 29: When you encounter information, what should be kept in mind?

Is it complete?
All of the above (Correct answer)
Is it current?
Is it accurate?

Correct answer: All of the above

When encountering information, it is important to keep in mind whether it is current, complete, and accurate. This is because outdated information may not be relevant or reliable, incomplete information may lead to incorrect conclusions, and inaccurate information can be misleading. Therefore, considering all three factors is crucial in evaluating the reliability and usefulness of the information.

Question 30: What is the correct needle angle for an intramuscular (IM) injection?

45 degrees
10–15 degrees
60 degrees
90 degrees (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 90 degrees

IM injections are administered at a 90-degree angle to ensure the medication reaches the muscle tissue.

Question 31: A nurse must document a medication error. Which entry is most appropriate?

'Charting done per policy'
'Error made by night nurse'
'Patient given wrong drug but appears fine'
'Wrong medication given; incident report filed; physician notified; patient assessed' (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 'Wrong medication given; incident report filed; physician notified; patient assessed'

Accurate documentation of a medication error includes the facts, interventions taken, notifications, and patient assessment.

Question 32: A nurse is assessing a newborn at 1 minute after birth. The infant has a heart rate of 90 bpm, weak cry, some flexion, grimace to stimulation, and blue hands and feet. What is the APGAR score?

8
7
6 (Correct answer)
5

Correct answer: 6

HR <100 (1) + weak cry (1) + some flexion (1) + grimace (1) + acrocyanosis (1) = APGAR score of 6.

Question 33: A newly licensed nurse is overwhelmed during a busy shift. What is the most appropriate action for the charge nurse to take?

Reassign all of the new nurse's patients to experienced staff
Inform the nurse to manage their time better
Assess the new nurse's workload and offer to help reprioritize tasks (Correct answer)
Document the new nurse's inability to manage the assignment

Correct answer: Assess the new nurse's workload and offer to help reprioritize tasks

Supportive leadership involves assessing the situation and helping the new nurse prioritize effectively, promoting learning and ensuring patient safety.

Question 34: A nurse is changing a wound dressing. Which action maintains sterile technique?

Reaching across the sterile field to retrieve supplies
Wearing clean (non-sterile) gloves throughout
Keeping the sterile field in view at all times (Correct answer)
Placing sterile items 1 inch from the edge of the sterile drape

Correct answer: Keeping the sterile field in view at all times

The sterile field must remain in constant view to ensure it is not contaminated.

Question 35: A nurse is about to administer a medication. Which of the following is the MINIMUM number of patient identifiers that should be used?

Four
Two (Correct answer)
One
Three

Correct answer: Two

At least two patient identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth) must be verified before administering any medication per The Joint Commission standards.

Question 36: A nurse is measuring a client's blood pressure and notices the cuff is too small. What effect will this have on the reading?

Falsely high reading (Correct answer)
No effect on the reading
Irregular pulse waveform only
Falsely low reading

Correct answer: Falsely high reading

A cuff that is too small will produce a falsely elevated blood pressure reading.

Question 37: Which fetal heart rate pattern requires the nurse to immediately reposition the mother and notify the provider?

Late decelerations in a non-reactive NST (Correct answer)
Accelerations with fetal movement
Early decelerations during pushing
Baseline FHR of 140 bpm

Correct answer: Late decelerations in a non-reactive NST

Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia, requiring immediate intervention.

Question 38: A mother is Rh-negative and delivers an Rh-positive newborn. The nurse should administer RhoGAM within:

72 hours of delivery (Correct answer)
24 hours of delivery
48 hours of delivery
1 week of delivery

Correct answer: 72 hours of delivery

RhoGAM (Rh immune globulin) must be administered within 72 hours of delivery to prevent Rh sensitization.

Question 39: What is the exact problem with relativistic thinking?

There is no problem at all.
Relativistic thinking promotes absolute truth.
Relativistic thinking promotes a view that something is the truth because it is the truth in my point of view. (Correct answer)
Relativistic thinking always promotes group opinions.

Correct answer: Relativistic thinking promotes a view that something is the truth because it is the truth in my point of view.

Relativistic thinking promotes a view that something is the truth because it is the truth in my point of view. This is problematic because it disregards objective truth and allows for subjective beliefs to be considered as valid and equal to factual evidence. It undermines the importance of evidence-based reasoning and critical thinking, leading to a lack of accountability and the potential for misinformation to be accepted as truth.

Question 40: For this entire semester, I've been playing and having fun every day. My studies are not going well. However, I believe I can score an A for the exam next week'. What is the mistake that the person has committed here with respect to critical thinking?

Egocentrism
Moral subjectivism
Self-confident thinking
Wishful thinking (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Wishful thinking

The mistake that the person has committed here with respect to critical thinking is wishful thinking. Wishful thinking refers to forming beliefs or making decisions based on what one wishes were true rather than on evidence or rational thinking. In this case, the person believes they can score an A for the exam next week despite their studies not going well throughout the semester, which is an example of wishful thinking as it is based on their desire rather than a realistic assessment of their abilities and preparation.

Question 41: A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter. Which step should be performed first?

Open the sterile catheter kit
Apply sterile gloves
Cleanse the urinary meatus
Explain the procedure to the patient (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Explain the procedure to the patient

Patient education and consent must occur before initiating any invasive procedure.

Question 42: A charge nurse is using transformational leadership. Which behavior best exemplifies this style?

Assigning tasks based on rules and offering incentives for compliance
Making all decisions unilaterally to maintain efficiency
Inspiring staff through a shared vision and mentoring professional growth (Correct answer)
Focusing primarily on error identification and correction

Correct answer: Inspiring staff through a shared vision and mentoring professional growth

Transformational leadership motivates staff through inspiration, shared vision, and fostering professional development rather than through rewards and punishments.

Question 43: What is the entry of drugs into the plasma?

Elimination
Distribution
Absorption (Correct answer)
Metabolism

Correct answer: Absorption

Absorption refers to the process by which drugs enter the bloodstream from the site of administration. It involves the movement of drugs across biological barriers, such as the gastrointestinal tract or the skin, and their subsequent entry into the plasma. Once in the plasma, drugs can then be distributed to various tissues and organs, metabolized by the body's enzymes, and eliminated from the body. Therefore, the entry of drugs into the plasma is correctly described as absorption.

Question 44: A patient with alcohol use disorder is admitted for detoxification. Which medication is most commonly used to prevent withdrawal seizures?

Naltrexone
Buprenorphine
Disulfiram
Lorazepam (a benzodiazepine) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Lorazepam (a benzodiazepine)

Benzodiazepines (e.g., lorazepam, diazepam) are the standard treatment for alcohol withdrawal to prevent seizures and delirium tremens.

Question 45: A patient with major depressive disorder is started on an SSRI. The nurse should teach the patient that the antidepressant effect typically takes:

3–5 days
2–4 weeks (Correct answer)
24–48 hours
6–8 weeks for full effect

Correct answer: 2–4 weeks

SSRIs take 2–4 weeks to show initial antidepressant effects, with full therapeutic benefit often at 6–8 weeks.

Question 46: A nurse is preparing to perform hand hygiene before a procedure. Which action is correct when using alcohol-based hand rub?

Use only when hands are visibly soiled
Apply a small dime-sized amount and wipe off with a towel
Rinse hands with water after applying the rub
Apply to dry hands and rub for at least 15 seconds until dry (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Apply to dry hands and rub for at least 15 seconds until dry

Alcohol-based hand rub should be applied to dry hands and rubbed together for at least 15 seconds until completely dry.

Question 47: A nurse delegates morning baths to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). The nurse retains responsibility for:

Nothing, since the task was properly delegated
Supervising the task and evaluating patient outcomes (Correct answer)
Documenting that the bath was completed by the UAP
Completing the bath if the UAP is busy

Correct answer: Supervising the task and evaluating patient outcomes

Delegation transfers the task but not the accountability — the nurse is responsible for supervision and verifying patient outcomes.

Question 48: A nurse assesses a newborn's skin and finds a yellowish discoloration at 12 hours of age. This is best described as:

Physiologic jaundice, which is normal at this time
Mongolian spots requiring documentation only
Pathologic jaundice, which requires evaluation (Correct answer)
Erythema toxicum, a benign rash

Correct answer: Pathologic jaundice, which requires evaluation

Jaundice appearing within the first 24 hours of life is pathologic, not physiologic, and requires immediate evaluation for hemolytic disease.

Question 49: Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Airborne precautions (Correct answer)
Droplet precautions
Protective environment
Contact precautions

Correct answer: Airborne precautions

Pulmonary TB is transmitted via airborne particles (droplet nuclei <5 microns), requiring airborne precautions and a negative-pressure room.

Question 50: A child with epiglottitis is brought to the emergency department. Which nursing action is the priority?

Administer antipyretics and obtain an IV access
Place the child supine and prepare for intubation
Keep the child calm and do not examine the throat (Correct answer)
Obtain a throat culture using a tongue depressor

Correct answer: Keep the child calm and do not examine the throat

Examining the throat in epiglottitis can trigger complete airway obstruction; the child must remain calm, preferably in a parent's lap, while airway management is prepared.

Question 51: A nurse is educating a pregnant client about folic acid. Why is adequate folic acid intake critical during the first trimester?

To prevent gestational diabetes
To reduce risk of neural tube defects (Correct answer)
To prevent preterm labor
To improve fetal lung maturity

Correct answer: To reduce risk of neural tube defects

Folic acid is essential during early fetal development to prevent neural tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly.

Question 52: Which intervention is most important for a patient with a new diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Encourage ambulation immediately
Apply a heating pad to the leg
Massage the affected extremity
Maintain bed rest and elevate the affected limb (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Maintain bed rest and elevate the affected limb

Bed rest with limb elevation reduces venous pressure and minimizes risk of embolization in acute DVT.

Question 53: A patient with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium of 6.2 mEq/L. Which ECG change does the nurse anticipate?

ST segment depression
Prolonged QT interval
Peaked T waves (Correct answer)
Widened P wave

Correct answer: Peaked T waves

Hyperkalemia characteristically produces peaked (tall, narrow) T waves on the ECG.

Question 54: Lecturer: You all should focus on this section. It's a critical section that requires a lot of thought and review. Peter: Ah, I know everything. This section is not a problem for me. I don't need to learn this. What mistake has Peter committed here with respect to critical thinking?

Relativistic thinking
Self-serving bias (Correct answer)
Group bias
Moral subjectivism

Correct answer: Self-serving bias

Peter has committed the mistake of self-serving bias. Self-serving bias is a cognitive bias where individuals tend to attribute their successes to internal factors and their failures to external factors. In this case, Peter is overconfident in his abilities and believes that he already knows everything in the critical section, dismissing the need to learn and review it. This bias prevents him from objectively assessing his own knowledge and skills, potentially leading to a lack of effort and preparation in a section that actually requires it.

Question 55: A patient with a spinal cord injury at T4 develops sudden hypertension, pounding headache, and diaphoresis above the level of injury. The nurse recognizes this as:

Neurogenic shock
Hypertensive urgency from anxiety
Autonomic dysreflexia (Correct answer)
Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: Autonomic dysreflexia

Autonomic dysreflexia is a hypertensive emergency in spinal cord injury above T6, triggered by a noxious stimulus below the injury level.

Question 56: A hospital is implementing a new electronic health record (EHR) system. Which change management strategy is most effective?

Mandate immediate system adoption with no training period
Announce the change only after the system is live
Involve frontline nurses in the design and rollout process (Correct answer)
Implement changes in secret to reduce resistance

Correct answer: Involve frontline nurses in the design and rollout process

Involving end-users in design and implementation increases buy-in, identifies workflow issues early, and improves adoption success.

Question 57: A gravida 3 para 2 patient is at 30 weeks and reports painless bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse suspects:

Bloody show in early labor
Placental abruption
Placenta previa (Correct answer)
Cervical polyp bleeding

Correct answer: Placenta previa

Painless bright red bleeding in the second or third trimester is the classic presentation of placenta previa.

Question 58: Which action by a nurse is an example of advocacy?

Completing documentation on time
Refusing to speak with a patient's family without consent
Informing a patient of their right to refuse a recommended procedure (Correct answer)
Administering medications as prescribed without questioning

Correct answer: Informing a patient of their right to refuse a recommended procedure

Advocacy involves ensuring patients are informed of their rights and supported in exercising them, including the right to refuse treatment.

Question 59: Which finding in a patient at 34 weeks gestation is consistent with preterm labor?

Mild lower back ache after prolonged standing
Fetal movement of 10 kicks in 2 hours
Regular contractions every 5 minutes with cervical dilation (Correct answer)
Braxton Hicks contractions that stop with hydration

Correct answer: Regular contractions every 5 minutes with cervical dilation

Regular contractions with documented cervical change before 37 weeks defines preterm labor.

Question 60: Which nursing action best demonstrates the principle of beneficence?

Administering analgesics to relieve a client's pain (Correct answer)
Maintaining a client's confidentiality
Allowing a client to refuse treatment
Distributing resources fairly among patients

Correct answer: Administering analgesics to relieve a client's pain

Beneficence means acting in the best interest of the patient, such as providing pain relief.

Question 61: At what gestational age is a fetus considered to be at full term by current ACOG definitions?

40 0/7 weeks
38 0/7 weeks
39 0/7 weeks (Correct answer)
37 0/7 weeks

Correct answer: 39 0/7 weeks

ACOG defines full term as 39 0/7 to 40 6/7 weeks; 37–38 weeks is now classified as early term.

Question 62: A nurse is assessing a client with suspected scurvy. Which clinical finding is most characteristic of this condition?

Muscle cramps and numbness
Dermatitis and dementia
Bleeding gums and poor wound healing (Correct answer)
Bone pain and bowing of the legs

Correct answer: Bleeding gums and poor wound healing

Scurvy results from vitamin C deficiency and is characterized by impaired collagen synthesis, leading to bleeding gums and poor wound healing.

Question 63: Which of the following findings is a classic sign of dehydration in an adult patient?

Bradycardia
Bounding peripheral pulses
Decreased skin turgor (Correct answer)
Hypertension

Correct answer: Decreased skin turgor

Decreased skin turgor (tenting) is a classic sign of dehydration caused by loss of interstitial fluid.

Question 64: Which of the following is a disadvantage of IM administration?

Can affect lab tests
B and C (Correct answer)
Larger volumes can be used
Painful
A and C

Correct answer: B and C

The disadvantage of IM (intramuscular) administration is that it can affect lab tests and it can be painful. IM administration involves injecting medication into the muscle, which can cause discomfort and pain. Additionally, the injection site can sometimes interfere with certain lab tests, leading to inaccurate results.

Question 65: A nurse is concerned about a physician's order that seems unsafe. Using SBAR, what does the 'R' stand for?

Reassessment
Recommendation (Correct answer)
Response
Reason

Correct answer: Recommendation

In the SBAR communication tool, 'R' stands for Recommendation — what the nurse is requesting or suggesting the provider do.

Question 66: A nurse manager uses a 'just culture' framework. This means:

All errors are reported to regulatory agencies immediately
Accountability is balanced between individual behavior and system failures (Correct answer)
Nurses are never disciplined for mistakes
Only senior nurses are evaluated for performance errors

Correct answer: Accountability is balanced between individual behavior and system failures

Just culture distinguishes between human error (system fix), at-risk behavior (coaching), and reckless behavior (discipline), balancing accountability with learning.

Question 67: A child with acute otitis media is prescribed amoxicillin. A parent asks how long the course should be. The standard treatment duration for a child under 2 years is:

10 days (Correct answer)
7 days
5 days
3 days

Correct answer: 10 days

Children under 2 years with acute otitis media are typically treated with a 10-day course of amoxicillin.

Question 68: A nurse is teaching a client about omega-3 fatty acids. Which dietary source provides the highest concentration of EPA and DHA?

Fatty fish (salmon) (Correct answer)
Flaxseeds
Canola oil
Walnuts

Correct answer: Fatty fish (salmon)

Fatty fish like salmon are the richest sources of the long-chain omega-3 fatty acids EPA and DHA, which are most bioavailable from marine sources.

Question 69: A child with meningitis has a positive Kernig's sign. This is elicited by:

Flexing the neck and noting hip and knee flexion
Extending the knee with the hip flexed, which causes pain and resistance (Correct answer)
Pressing on the fontanelle and noting a bulge
Checking for photophobia with a penlight

Correct answer: Extending the knee with the hip flexed, which causes pain and resistance

Kernig's sign is positive when extending the knee from a 90-degree hip flexion position causes pain or resistance due to meningeal irritation.

Question 70: A patient who has been taking lithium for bipolar disorder presents with coarse hand tremors, polyuria, and confusion. The nurse suspects:

Lithium toxicity (Correct answer)
Subtherapeutic lithium levels
Normal side effects at steady state
Lithium withdrawal syndrome

Correct answer: Lithium toxicity

Coarse tremors (not fine), polyuria, and confusion indicate lithium toxicity, which requires immediate intervention.

ATI Nursing Proctored Assessment

ATI (Assessment Technologies Institute) nursing proctored assessments evaluate nursing students' knowledge across core clinical subjects including fundamentals, medical-surgical, maternal-newborn, and leadership and management, in preparation for NCLEX-RN licensure.

Questions

70 min

Time Limit

65%

To Pass

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Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
Flag questions for review before submitting
No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds