Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers (STCW) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What is the purpose of a ship's load line (Plimsoll mark)?

To mark the maximum safe loading depth for various ocean zones and seasons (Correct answer)
To indicate the vessel's registered tonnage
To indicate the ship's speed capability
To show the location of the keel

Correct answer: To mark the maximum safe loading depth for various ocean zones and seasons

The load line or Plimsoll mark indicates the maximum depth to which a vessel may be safely loaded under different conditions of sea and season, preventing overloading.

Question 2: What is the primary danger of cargo shifting at sea?

It causes a list or sudden loss of stability, potentially leading to capsizing (Correct answer)
It reduces the ship's speed
It may damage the ship's radar antenna
It increases fuel consumption

Correct answer: It causes a list or sudden loss of stability, potentially leading to capsizing

When cargo shifts to one side, it causes an off-center weight distribution leading to a list; in severe cases, this loss of stability can cause the vessel to capsize.

Question 3: When must entries be made in the Oil Record Book Part II (cargo/ballast operations) on an oil tanker?

Only in port when a flag state inspector is present
Once per voyage at the end of the passage
After each cargo loading, unloading, ballasting, or tank cleaning operation (Correct answer)
Only when a spill occurs

Correct answer: After each cargo loading, unloading, ballasting, or tank cleaning operation

Part II entries are required promptly after each cargo, ballast, or tank cleaning operation on oil tankers to maintain an accurate continuous record.

Question 4: When using an AED on a casualty who is lying in water, what should you do first?

Use the AED immediately — water does not affect it
Dry the chest only and apply pads while remaining in water
Move the casualty to a dry surface before attaching pads (Correct answer)
Skip AED use and continue CPR only

Correct answer: Move the casualty to a dry surface before attaching pads

The casualty must be moved to a dry surface to prevent current dispersion through water and protect rescuers from shock.

Question 5: What is the purpose of the crankcase relief valve on a marine diesel engine?

To vent excessive crankcase pressure rapidly and prevent an explosion (Correct answer)
To regulate oil temperature
To maintain crankcase oil pressure
To allow inspection of crankcase bearings

Correct answer: To vent excessive crankcase pressure rapidly and prevent an explosion

Crankcase relief valves open rapidly during a crankcase explosion to release pressure, preventing catastrophic structural failure of the engine.

Question 6: What minimum number of fire drills must be conducted on a passenger vessel each month under SOLAS?

One drill per week
One drill every two months (Correct answer)
One drill per month
Two drills per month

Correct answer: One drill every two months

SOLAS requires that each crew member participate in at least one fire drill and one abandon ship drill every month on passenger vessels.

Question 7: What is the importance of effective communication in emergency procedures?

To make sure the emergency situation is broadcast to the public
To reduce the need for emergency drills
To limit the number of crew members needed for an emergency response
To ensure a coordinated, efficient response by all crew members (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To ensure a coordinated, efficient response by all crew members

Effective communication is paramount during emergency procedures to ensure a coordinated and efficient response by all crew members. Clear and timely information exchange prevents confusion, allows for swift decision-making, and ensures everyone understands their roles and actions. This coordination is vital for mitigating the emergency effectively and safeguarding lives.

Question 8: Which international code governs the carriage of dangerous goods in packaged form by sea?

IMSBC Code
ISM Code
MARPOL Annex III
IMDG Code (Correct answer)

Correct answer: IMDG Code

The International Maritime Dangerous Goods (IMDG) Code, developed by the IMO, governs the safe transport of hazardous materials in packaged form by sea.

Question 9: Which of the following is a classic sign of a tension pneumothorax in a trauma patient?

Bradycardia and hypertension
Tracheal deviation away from the affected side and absent breath sounds (Correct answer)
Bilateral wheeze and productive cough
Distended abdomen and rigidity

Correct answer: Tracheal deviation away from the affected side and absent breath sounds

Tension pneumothorax causes tracheal deviation to the opposite side and absent breath sounds on the affected side due to air under pressure.

Question 10: Which landmark is used to position hands correctly for chest compressions on an adult?

Center of the chest on the lower half of the sternum (Correct answer)
Just below the clavicle in the midline
Two fingers above the xiphoid process
Left side of the chest over the heart

Correct answer: Center of the chest on the lower half of the sternum

Compressions are delivered to the center of the chest on the lower half of the sternum to effectively compress the heart.

Question 11: A casualty has a closed fracture of the forearm. What is the primary goal of splinting before transfer?

Restore normal limb alignment by traction
Cover the fracture site to prevent infection
Increase blood flow to the injured area with compression
Immobilize the injury to prevent further damage and reduce pain (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immobilize the injury to prevent further damage and reduce pain

Splinting immobilizes the fracture to prevent movement that could worsen injury, damage vessels/nerves, and increase pain.

Question 12: What is the purpose of a 'buddy system' during firefighting operations on a ship?

To ensure one firefighter watches from a safe distance while the other attacks the fire
To designate one crew member to maintain radio contact with the bridge
To allow firefighters to share a single BA set during prolonged operations
To ensure no firefighter enters a hazardous area alone, improving safety and rescue capability (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To ensure no firefighter enters a hazardous area alone, improving safety and rescue capability

The buddy system pairs firefighters so they can monitor each other, preventing isolation and enabling rapid rescue if one is incapacitated.

Question 13: A crew member suffers electric shock from shipboard equipment and is flung clear. He is now unresponsive. What is the safest first step?

Ensure power to the equipment is isolated before approaching (Correct answer)
Call for help only and do not approach until a doctor arrives
Begin chest compressions from a distance using a long pole
Touch him immediately to check for pulse before calling for help

Correct answer: Ensure power to the equipment is isolated before approaching

The electrical supply must be isolated before approaching an electrocution victim to prevent the rescuer from also receiving a shock.

Question 14: Under STCW, seafarers with designated security duties must hold which certification?

A basic safety training certificate only
A proficiency in designated security duties (PDSD) certificate (Correct answer)
A Ship Security Officer certificate regardless of role
A proficiency in security awareness certificate only

Correct answer: A proficiency in designated security duties (PDSD) certificate

STCW requires seafarers with designated security duties to hold a Proficiency in Designated Security Duties (PDSD) certificate under Table A-VI/6-2.

Question 15: What is the correct meaning of the International Code of Signals flag 'O' (Oscar)?

I require a pilot
Man overboard (Correct answer)
My vessel is stopped and making no way
I am carrying dangerous cargo

Correct answer: Man overboard

The 'O' (Oscar) flag in the International Code of Signals means 'Man overboard' and is flown to alert other vessels to the emergency.

Question 16: A casualty has suffered burns to both arms after a steam pipe rupture. Using the Rule of Nines, what percentage of the body surface area (BSA) is affected?

27%
9%
36%
18% (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 18%

Each arm represents 9% BSA, so both arms together account for 18% BSA under the Rule of Nines.

Question 17: What is the correct action if a crew member discovers a fire in a cargo hold?

Sound the alarm, report to the bridge, and close all openings to the hold (Correct answer)
Wait to confirm the fire before alerting others to avoid a false alarm
Open the hold to fight the fire with portable extinguishers
Immediately flood the hold with water from a fire hose

Correct answer: Sound the alarm, report to the bridge, and close all openings to the hold

Sounding the alarm and closing openings to limit oxygen supply are the immediate priorities; fighting a hold fire alone is extremely dangerous.

Question 18: What is the role of lifeboats in emergency preparedness?

To serve as a means of evacuation in emergencies such as sinking or fire (Correct answer)
To monitor the vessel’s radio communications
To store non-perishable food for the crew
To provide shelter from the sun during long voyages

Correct answer: To serve as a means of evacuation in emergencies such as sinking or fire

Lifeboats serve as a critical means of evacuation in maritime emergencies such as a ship sinking or a severe fire onboard. They are designed to safely transport crew and passengers away from a distressed vessel to await rescue. Their readiness and proper deployment are essential components of a ship's emergency preparedness plan.

Question 19: A crew member is found unresponsive and not breathing normally. After calling for help, what is your FIRST action?

Check for a pulse for at least 10 seconds
Begin rescue breaths immediately
Start chest compressions at 30:2 ratio (Correct answer)
Apply an AED before starting CPR

Correct answer: Start chest compressions at 30:2 ratio

Current STCW/ILCOR guidelines prioritize chest compressions first at a 30:2 ratio before rescue breaths in adult CPR.

Question 20: When treating a casualty for hypothermia, which action should be AVOIDED?

Vigorously rubbing the extremities to generate warmth (Correct answer)
Insulating with blankets
Removing wet clothing carefully
Moving the casualty gently to a warm environment

Correct answer: Vigorously rubbing the extremities to generate warmth

Vigorous rubbing causes peripheral vasodilation and can trigger a rush of cold blood to the core (afterdrop), worsening hypothermia or causing cardiac arrest.

Question 21: What is the function of a sea anchor deployed from a liferaft?

To anchor the raft to the seabed in shallow water
To filter seawater for drinking
To signal position by creating a visible wake
To slow drift, keep the raft head-to-sea, and reduce capsize risk (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To slow drift, keep the raft head-to-sea, and reduce capsize risk

A sea anchor is a cone-shaped drogue that creates drag, slowing the raft's drift, keeping the entrance facing away from waves, and improving stability.

Question 22: Which type of fire extinguisher is most appropriate for fighting a Class B fire involving flammable liquids?

Wet chemical extinguisher
Sand bucket only
CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher (Correct answer)
Water extinguisher

Correct answer: CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher

CO2 and dry chemical extinguishers are effective on Class B fires involving flammable liquids, whereas water can spread the fire.

Question 23: What is the correct sequence for donning an immersion suit in an emergency?

Don a lifejacket first, then put the immersion suit over it
Put on the suit partially and complete donning in the water
Remove all clothing, don the suit, then inflate it manually
Don the suit over normal clothing, zip up fully, then don a lifejacket on top (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Don the suit over normal clothing, zip up fully, then don a lifejacket on top

Immersion suits are designed to be worn over clothing, fully sealed and zipped, with a lifejacket worn on top for buoyancy.

Question 24: What is the MOST effective way for new STCW professionals to build competency in their field?

Focusing solely on the most advanced topics
Combining formal education, mentored practice, and ongoing professional development (Correct answer)
Learning entirely through trial and error
Studying certification materials exclusively

Correct answer: Combining formal education, mentored practice, and ongoing professional development

Building professional competency requires a multi-faceted approach: formal education provides foundational knowledge, mentored practice develops applied skills under guidance, and ongoing professional development ensures continuous growth and currency in the field.

Question 25: What is the fundamental principle behind marine engineering in the STCW domain?

Balancing performance, reliability, and efficiency (Correct answer)
Using the newest technology exclusively
Following a single vendor solution
Cost minimization at all costs

Correct answer: Balancing performance, reliability, and efficiency

Effective technical design requires balancing performance requirements with reliability needs and operational efficiency.

Question 26: When assessing a casualty using the primary survey, what does the 'D' in the DRABC or DR-ABC mnemonic stand for?

Dressing
Disability
Defibrillation
Danger (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Danger

The 'D' stands for Danger — always ensure the scene is safe for rescuers before approaching the casualty.

Question 27: What is the STCW requirement for a Chief Engineer officer on a ship of 3,000 kW or more propulsion power?

STCW Certificate III/3 — Chief Engineer on ships of less than 3,000 kW
No specific STCW certificate required above 3,000 kW
STCW Certificate III/6
STCW Certificate III/2 — Chief Engineer (Correct answer)

Correct answer: STCW Certificate III/2 — Chief Engineer

STCW Regulation III/2 and Table A-III/2 specify the competence requirements for Chief Engineers on ships with 3,000 kW propulsion power or more.

Question 28: What does the term 'enclosed space' mean under STCW and ISM safety procedures?

Any space below the waterline
A space with limited openings and restricted ventilation posing risk of toxic or oxygen-deficient atmosphere (Correct answer)
A locked storeroom on the main deck
Any space requiring a key to enter

Correct answer: A space with limited openings and restricted ventilation posing risk of toxic or oxygen-deficient atmosphere

Enclosed spaces are defined by their potential for oxygen deficiency or toxic gas accumulation due to limited ventilation.

Question 29: According to STCW, which certificate is required for all seafarers before joining a vessel?

Basic Safety Training (BST) certificate (Correct answer)
GMDSS Operator's Certificate
Certificate of Competency (CoC)
Medical Fitness Certificate only

Correct answer: Basic Safety Training (BST) certificate

STCW Regulation VI/1 requires all seafarers to hold a Basic Safety Training certificate covering survival, firefighting, first aid, and personal safety.

Question 30: What action should be taken when a man overboard is sighted?

Reduce speed, note the time, and call the captain
Shout 'Man overboard,' throw a lifebuoy, and alert the bridge immediately (Correct answer)
Maintain course and speed while deploying rescue boat
Sound five short blasts on the ship's horn and stand by

Correct answer: Shout 'Man overboard,' throw a lifebuoy, and alert the bridge immediately

Immediate actions include alerting others, throwing a lifebuoy with light and smoke signal, keeping sight of the person, and notifying the bridge.

Question 31: What is a common emergency situation that seafarers must be prepared for?

Fires, man-overboard incidents, shipwrecks, and piracy (Correct answer)
Navigating in calm weather conditions
Changing the ship’s engine fuel
Dealing with food spoilage on board

Correct answer: Fires, man-overboard incidents, shipwrecks, and piracy

Seafarers must be prepared for a range of severe emergency situations due to the inherent risks of maritime operations. Common critical incidents include fires, man-overboard situations, shipwrecks, and piracy. Comprehensive training and preparedness for these scenarios are vital to ensure the safety of the crew, vessel, and cargo.

Question 32: Which sign best indicates that a casualty is going into hypovolemic shock following blood loss?

Bradycardia with warm dry skin
Rapid weak pulse, pale cool clammy skin, and falling blood pressure (Correct answer)
Slow, bounding pulse with flushed warm skin
High blood pressure with a strong regular pulse

Correct answer: Rapid weak pulse, pale cool clammy skin, and falling blood pressure

Hypovolemic shock is characterized by a rapid weak pulse, pallor, cool clammy skin, and progressive hypotension as blood volume falls.

Question 33: Which document must be maintained on all ships of 400 GT and above to record oily waste operations?

Oil Record Book Part I (Correct answer)
Ballast Water Record Book
Garbage Management Plan
Cargo Record Book

Correct answer: Oil Record Book Part I

The Oil Record Book Part I (machinery space operations) is mandatory on ships 400 GT and above under MARPOL Annex I.

Question 34: A casualty has a fishhook deeply embedded in the palm. Which statement about first aid management is correct?

Apply antiseptic and wrap tightly to compress the hook flush
Leave the hook in place, immobilize, cover, and seek medical advice (Correct answer)
Cut the hook with wire cutters and push the barb through for removal
Remove the hook by pulling it out the way it entered

Correct answer: Leave the hook in place, immobilize, cover, and seek medical advice

An embedded fishhook with a barb should be left in place, the limb immobilized, and professional removal sought to avoid further tissue damage.

Question 35: What information must be included in a distress message sent via DSC (Digital Selective Calling)?

MMSI number, nature of distress, and position (Correct answer)
Ship's name, nature of distress, and cargo manifest
Port of departure, destination, and number of persons on board
Ship's flag state, owner contact, and insurance details

Correct answer: MMSI number, nature of distress, and position

A DSC distress alert automatically includes the MMSI, and operators must follow up with voice details including nature of distress and position.

Question 36: Which authority is responsible for coordinating search and rescue operations in a specific maritime area?

The nearest port authority
The Maritime Rescue Coordination Centre (MRCC) responsible for that SRR (Correct answer)
The International Maritime Organization (IMO)
The flag state of the vessel in distress

Correct answer: The Maritime Rescue Coordination Centre (MRCC) responsible for that SRR

Each ocean area is divided into Search and Rescue Regions (SRRs), each managed by a Maritime Rescue Coordination Centre (MRCC).

Question 37: A casualty is drowning and is brought aboard unresponsive but with a pulse. What is the immediate priority?

Provide rescue breaths only while maintaining a pulse (Correct answer)
Start full CPR with compressions and ventilations
Administer high-flow oxygen via bag-valve-mask only
Place in recovery position and monitor closely

Correct answer: Provide rescue breaths only while maintaining a pulse

In drowning victims with a pulse but no breathing, rescue breaths (ventilation only) are the priority without the need for compressions.

Question 38: Under STCW, how often must abandon ship drills be conducted on passenger ships?

Once per week (Correct answer)
Once per month
Once per voyage
Once every two weeks

Correct answer: Once per week

SOLAS requires abandon ship drills on passenger ships to be conducted weekly, ensuring crew proficiency.

Question 39: What is the purpose of the 'Search and Rescue Transponder' (SART) carried on lifeboats?

To emit a radar signal that helps rescuers locate the survival craft (Correct answer)
To activate the ship's EPIRB remotely
To communicate voice messages with rescue vessels
To automatically broadcast the ship's last known position on VHF

Correct answer: To emit a radar signal that helps rescuers locate the survival craft

A SART responds to 9 GHz radar pulses from search aircraft or ships, producing a distinctive pattern that pinpoints the lifeboat's location.

Question 40: What is the correct immediate action when a vessel is flooding rapidly and bilge pumps cannot control the ingress?

Transfer ballast to the flooded compartment to stabilize the vessel
Increase engine speed to keep the bow high and reduce flooding forward
Activate watertight doors and bulkheads, muster the crew, and prepare to abandon ship (Correct answer)
Anchor the vessel to prevent it from sinking in deep water

Correct answer: Activate watertight doors and bulkheads, muster the crew, and prepare to abandon ship

When flooding cannot be controlled, activating watertight closures to limit spread, mustering crew, and preparing abandon ship equipment are the priority actions.

Question 41: What role does collaboration play in first aid at sea for STCW professionals?

It slows down work unnecessarily
It is only needed in emergencies
It reduces individual accountability
It enhances outcomes through diverse perspectives and shared expertise (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It enhances outcomes through diverse perspectives and shared expertise

Collaboration leverages diverse perspectives and combined expertise to achieve better outcomes than any individual could alone.

Question 42: What must a ship do when it cannot discharge garbage at sea in compliance with MARPOL Annex V?

Incinerate all garbage immediately regardless of type
Compact and jettison solid waste only
Discharge beyond 12 nautical miles if no other option exists
Retain the garbage on board and discharge it at a port reception facility (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Retain the garbage on board and discharge it at a port reception facility

When at-sea discharge is not permitted under Annex V, vessels must retain garbage on board and offload it at a port reception facility.

Question 43: A crew member is found unconscious with a suspected drug overdose. He is breathing shallowly. What position should he be placed in?

Prone position
Supine with legs elevated
Recovery (lateral) position (Correct answer)
Sitting upright

Correct answer: Recovery (lateral) position

The recovery position maintains the airway, prevents aspiration of vomit, and allows ongoing monitoring of breathing in an unconscious patient.

Question 44: What does the term 'noxious liquid substance' (NLS) refer to under MARPOL Annex II?

Exhaust scrubber washwater
Chemicals carried in bulk that can harm the marine environment (Correct answer)
Sewage from passenger vessels
Fuel oil carried as cargo

Correct answer: Chemicals carried in bulk that can harm the marine environment

MARPOL Annex II regulates the transport and discharge of noxious liquid substances, which are bulk liquid chemicals categorized by hazard to the marine environment.

Question 45: In DSC (Digital Selective Calling), what category is used for transmitting a distress alert?

Safety
Distress (Correct answer)
Urgency
Routine

Correct answer: Distress

The Distress category in DSC is reserved exclusively for life-threatening emergencies requiring immediate assistance.

Question 46: Which MF/HF frequency is designated as the international distress frequency for radiotelephony?

2182 kHz (Correct answer)
8291 kHz
12290 kHz
4125 kHz

Correct answer: 2182 kHz

2182 kHz is the international MF distress and calling frequency for radiotelephony, used for voice mayday calls.

Question 47: A vessel's immersion suit must be donned within what time limit during a drill?

30 seconds
1 minute (Correct answer)
5 minutes
2 minutes

Correct answer: 1 minute

SOLAS requires that crew members be able to don an immersion suit within 2 minutes, but the standard training target is 1 minute.

Question 48: Which frequency band is used by INMARSAT for satellite communications?

X-band (8-12 GHz)
HF (3-30 MHz)
VHF (30-300 MHz)
L-band (1-2 GHz) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: L-band (1-2 GHz)

INMARSAT satellite communications primarily operate in the L-band frequency range (1-2 GHz).

Question 49: Which signal indicates 'abandon ship' on a vessel's alarm system?

Three long blasts on the ship's whistle
Continuous sounding of the general alarm bell for 30 seconds
More than six short blasts followed by one long blast on the whistle and alarm bells (Correct answer)
One prolonged blast of the ship's whistle

Correct answer: More than six short blasts followed by one long blast on the whistle and alarm bells

The abandon ship signal is more than six short blasts followed by one long blast on the whistle and the same signal on the internal alarm.

Question 50: If the gyrocompass fails during a navigational watch, the OOW should immediately:

Stop the vessel and call for assistance
Continue on autopilot using GPS heading
Reduce speed to bare steerage
Switch to the magnetic compass and notify the master (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Switch to the magnetic compass and notify the master

When the gyrocompass fails, the OOW must immediately switch to the magnetic compass (applying deviation and variation) and notify the master.

Question 51: When abandoning ship, what is the correct order of actions before entering the water?

Remove shoes and all clothing to swim faster
Jump immediately from the highest point
Don lifejacket, check for hazards below, then descend by ladder or rope (Correct answer)
Signal other crew before putting on lifejacket

Correct answer: Don lifejacket, check for hazards below, then descend by ladder or rope

Before entering the water, seafarers should don their lifejacket, visually check for debris or hazards below, and use a ladder or rope rather than jumping from height.

Question 52: When activating an EPIRB, on which satellite system does a 406 MHz EPIRB transmit to initiate SAR response?

INMARSAT geostationary satellites only
GPS navigation satellites
VHF maritime radio network
COSPAS-SARSAT medium Earth orbit satellites (Correct answer)

Correct answer: COSPAS-SARSAT medium Earth orbit satellites

406 MHz EPIRBs transmit to the COSPAS-SARSAT system, which uses low and medium Earth orbit satellites to detect and locate distress signals globally.

Question 53: A vessel is listing to starboard. Which corrective action would best restore upright trim?

Increase speed to generate hydrodynamic forces
Move cargo from port to starboard to balance the list
Transfer ballast water from starboard tanks to port tanks (Correct answer)
Pump out all ballast and reload in port

Correct answer: Transfer ballast water from starboard tanks to port tanks

Transferring ballast from the low side to the high side corrects a list by shifting the center of gravity back toward centerline.

Question 54: During a night watch in open ocean, what is the recommended interval for taking manual position fixes when the vessel is on autopilot?

Only at the beginning and end of the watch
At intervals appropriate to the navigational situation and proximity to hazards (Correct answer)
Every 30 minutes
Every 2 hours

Correct answer: At intervals appropriate to the navigational situation and proximity to hazards

STCW requires the OOW to take position fixes at intervals appropriate to the navigational situation — more frequently near hazards, less so in open ocean.

Question 55: What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio when two trained rescuers perform CPR on an adult without an advanced airway?

30:2 (Correct answer)
50:5
5:1
15:2

Correct answer: 30:2

The recommended ratio for two-rescuer adult CPR without an advanced airway remains 30 compressions to 2 ventilations.

Question 56: Which international body is responsible for maintaining and updating GMDSS regulations?

World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
International Maritime Organization (IMO) (Correct answer)
International Labour Organization (ILO)

Correct answer: International Maritime Organization (IMO)

The IMO is responsible for GMDSS regulations through SOLAS Chapter IV, while the ITU regulates the radio frequency allocations used by GMDSS.

Question 57: Which of the following is a sign of a basilar skull fracture that a first aider should recognize?

Battle's sign (bruising behind the ear) and raccoon eyes (periorbital bruising) (Correct answer)
Ringing in the ears without any visible injury
Localized scalp swelling without other findings
Bilateral arm weakness and confusion only

Correct answer: Battle's sign (bruising behind the ear) and raccoon eyes (periorbital bruising)

Battle's sign (mastoid bruising) and raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) are classic delayed signs of a basilar skull fracture.

Question 58: What is the primary purpose of a ship's stability booklet?

To document maintenance schedules
To provide loading conditions and stability data for safe operation (Correct answer)
To record the crew's daily work hours
To list all cargo carried on the vessel

Correct answer: To provide loading conditions and stability data for safe operation

A ship's stability booklet contains approved loading conditions and stability data that must be consulted to ensure the vessel is loaded within safe limits.

Question 59: Under SOLAS Chapter III, how long must a totally enclosed lifeboat be able to sustain its crew without resupply?

3 days (Correct answer)
48 hours
24 hours
7 days

Correct answer: 3 days

SOLAS requires totally enclosed lifeboats to carry sufficient food, water, and supplies to sustain the survival craft's complement for three days.

Question 60: Under SOLAS, which vessel is required to carry an immersion suit for every person on board?

Cargo ships and passenger ships on international voyages (Correct answer)
Vessels operating more than 200 nautical miles from shore
Only vessels carrying hazardous cargo
All vessels in tropical waters only

Correct answer: Cargo ships and passenger ships on international voyages

SOLAS requires cargo ships and passenger ships on international voyages to carry approved immersion suits for every person on board.

Question 61: A vessel is approaching a Traffic Separation Scheme (TSS). According to COLREGS Rule 10, how should it join a traffic lane?

At a right angle to the general direction of traffic flow
From the separation zone side only
At as small an angle as possible to the direction of traffic flow (Correct answer)
Only during daylight hours

Correct answer: At as small an angle as possible to the direction of traffic flow

Rule 10(c) states that vessels joining a traffic lane should do so at as small an angle as practicable to reduce disruption to traffic flow.

Question 62: What is the function of the DSC frequency 2187.5 kHz?

HF telex frequency for routine communications
MF radiotelephony distress calling frequency
Working channel for ship-to-ship MF communications
MF DSC distress alerting frequency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: MF DSC distress alerting frequency

2187.5 kHz is the dedicated MF DSC frequency for transmitting and receiving digital distress alerts in Sea Areas A1 and A2.

Question 63: Under STCW, an OOW may be the sole lookout during the day under which condition?

When the vessel is on autopilot and ARPA is active
Only when the vessel is in open ocean with no traffic
After a full risk assessment concludes it is safe and the master has authorized it (Correct answer)
Never — a separate lookout is always required

Correct answer: After a full risk assessment concludes it is safe and the master has authorized it

STCW allows the OOW to be the sole lookout in daylight only after a risk assessment confirms it is safe, with the master's explicit authorization.

Question 64: A 'backdraft' explosion occurs when:

A CO2 system is activated in a wet environment
Water contacts superheated metal surfaces
Fresh oxygen is suddenly introduced into a smoldering, oxygen-depleted fire compartment (Correct answer)
Foam is applied too quickly to a fuel fire

Correct answer: Fresh oxygen is suddenly introduced into a smoldering, oxygen-depleted fire compartment

Backdraft occurs when a compartment's fire has consumed available oxygen but unburned gases ignite explosively when fresh air enters.

Question 65: Under SOLAS, how often must the batteries of a float-free EPIRB be replaced or recharged?

Every year or when 50% of battery capacity is used
Every 2 years or when 50% of battery capacity is used (Correct answer)
Every 5 years
Every 6 months

Correct answer: Every 2 years or when 50% of battery capacity is used

SOLAS requires EPIRB batteries to be replaced or recharged every 2 years, or whenever 50% of their capacity has been used.

Question 66: A tanker is cleaning cargo tanks using the crude oil washing (COW) method. This technique primarily helps by:

Minimizing oily residues left in tanks, thereby reducing slops requiring disposal (Correct answer)
Eliminating the need for an inert gas system
Increasing cargo capacity by removing scale
Reducing the need for ballast water on the return voyage

Correct answer: Minimizing oily residues left in tanks, thereby reducing slops requiring disposal

Crude oil washing uses crude oil itself to wash tank residues, significantly reducing the volume of oily slops that must be managed or discharged.

Question 67: How do maintenance schedules affect ship operations?

They are only necessary for major repairs
They are designed to make operations less efficient
They focus only on fuel consumption management
They ensure that machinery is operating efficiently and minimize unplanned downtime (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They ensure that machinery is operating efficiently and minimize unplanned downtime

Maintenance schedules significantly affect ship operations by ensuring that all machinery operates efficiently and reliably, thereby minimizing unplanned downtime. By planning routine checks, servicing, and repairs, these schedules prevent unexpected equipment failures and extend the lifespan of critical components. This systematic approach enhances operational efficiency, reduces costs, and improves overall safety and reliability.

Question 68: A crew member has a suspected spinal injury after a fall from height. How should the casualty's airway be opened?

Jaw-thrust maneuver while maintaining spinal alignment (Correct answer)
Place the casualty in the recovery position immediately
Head-tilt chin-lift method
Hyperextension of the neck for maximum airway opening

Correct answer: Jaw-thrust maneuver while maintaining spinal alignment

The jaw-thrust maneuver opens the airway without extending the neck, protecting the cervical spine from further injury.

Question 69: What is the minimum safe oxygen concentration level in a confined space before entry without breathing apparatus?

17%
21%
23%
19.5% (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 19.5%

An oxygen concentration below 19.5% is considered oxygen-deficient and unsafe for entry without self-contained breathing apparatus.

Question 70: What is the function of a watertight integrity check prior to departure?

To check navigation lights
To ensure all openings and closures that prevent flooding are properly secured (Correct answer)
To verify cargo weight distribution
To test the steering gear

Correct answer: To ensure all openings and closures that prevent flooding are properly secured

A watertight integrity check confirms that hatches, doors, and other openings are secured to prevent flooding in an emergency.

Question 71: Which type of foam is specifically designed for use on polar solvent (alcohol-type) fires such as acetone or ethanol?

AFFF (Aqueous Film-Forming Foam)
Protein foam
AR-AFFF (Alcohol-Resistant AFFF) (Correct answer)
High-expansion foam

Correct answer: AR-AFFF (Alcohol-Resistant AFFF)

Alcohol-resistant AFFF (AR-AFFF) contains a polymer that forms a protective membrane preventing alcohol-type solvents from breaking down regular foam.

Question 72: What is the correct initial management of a minor thermal burn at sea?

Cover immediately with a dry pressure bandage
Break any blisters to prevent infection
Cool the burn with running cool water for at least 10–20 minutes (Correct answer)
Apply butter or oil to soothe the burn

Correct answer: Cool the burn with running cool water for at least 10–20 minutes

Cooling with running cool water for 10–20 minutes reduces tissue damage and pain without the risks of butter/oil or blister rupture.

Question 73: A casualty has a penetrating abdominal wound with protruding intestines (evisceration). What is the correct first aid?

Push the organs back into the abdominal cavity gently
Leave the wound exposed to avoid contaminating the organs
Cover organs with a moist sterile dressing and do not attempt to replace them (Correct answer)
Apply a tight abdominal bandage over the wound

Correct answer: Cover organs with a moist sterile dressing and do not attempt to replace them

Protruding organs must be covered with a moist sterile dressing to prevent drying and contamination, but must never be pushed back.

Question 74: How does a seafarer’s training in fire safety contribute to overall safety?

By ensuring proper fire extinguishing equipment is always in place
By allowing the crew to focus solely on fire equipment maintenance
By teaching how to prevent, detect, and respond to fires on board (Correct answer)
By reducing the number of fire alarms onboard

Correct answer: By teaching how to prevent, detect, and respond to fires on board

A seafarer’s training in fire safety is fundamental to overall safety by equipping them with the knowledge to prevent, detect, and effectively respond to fires on board. This training includes understanding fire hazards, using firefighting equipment, and implementing emergency procedures. It ensures a rapid and coordinated response, significantly reducing the risk of widespread damage and protecting lives.

Question 75: Which approach best demonstrates mastery of first aid at sea in STCW practice?

Applying principles to novel situations with sound judgment (Correct answer)
Avoiding complex scenarios
Relying entirely on technology
Following procedures without understanding

Correct answer: Applying principles to novel situations with sound judgment

True mastery involves understanding underlying principles well enough to apply them to new and unfamiliar situations with professional judgment.

Question 76: What is the most important professional competency for STCW certification in first aid at sea?

Speed of task completion
Memorization of all reference materials
Deep knowledge combined with practical application skills (Correct answer)
Ability to work alone exclusively

Correct answer: Deep knowledge combined with practical application skills

Professional competency requires both deep knowledge of the subject matter and the ability to apply that knowledge in practical situations.

Question 77: What is the purpose of a lookout during watchkeeping?

To prepare the ship for docking
To observe the surroundings and report hazards during navigation (Correct answer)
To monitor the engine performance
To manage the ship's fuel consumption

Correct answer: To observe the surroundings and report hazards during navigation

The purpose of a lookout during watchkeeping is to maintain continuous visual and auditory observation of the surrounding sea and sky. They are responsible for detecting and reporting any potential hazards, such as other vessels, navigational aids, land, or persons in distress. This vigilance provides critical information to the watchkeeper for safe navigation and collision avoidance.

Question 78: When the OOW observes that the vessel's AIS is transmitting incorrect information, the correct action is to:

Ignore it as AIS is supplementary only
Turn off the AIS until the error is identified
Report the error only at the end of the voyage
Correct the AIS data and log the discrepancy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Correct the AIS data and log the discrepancy

Incorrect AIS data can mislead other vessels; the OOW must correct the transmitted data and log the discrepancy as soon as possible.

Question 79: Under STCW, what is the minimum frequency for conducting shipboard fire drills?

Once per week
Once per month (Correct answer)
At the start of each voyage only
Every two weeks

Correct answer: Once per month

SOLAS and STCW require fire drills to be conducted at least once every month to ensure crew readiness.

Question 80: Under SOLAS, what must be done with a 'heavy lift' cargo item before loading?

It must be inspected by a port state control officer
Its weight must be accurately declared by the shipper, and a lift plan approved by the ship's master (Correct answer)
It must be broken down into smaller packages
It must be declared to customs authorities only

Correct answer: Its weight must be accurately declared by the shipper, and a lift plan approved by the ship's master

Heavy lifts require accurate weight declarations from the shipper and a coordinated lift plan to ensure the ship's lifting gear and stability are adequate for safe loading and stowage.

Question 81: Which professional attribute is most valued in first aid at sea within the STCW field?

Working in isolation
Avoiding challenging situations
Prioritizing personal convenience
Accountability and commitment to standards (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Accountability and commitment to standards

Accountability and commitment to professional standards build trust and ensure consistent, high-quality practice.

Question 82: What is the purpose of an intercooler in a marine diesel engine air supply system?

To heat the air to prevent condensation
To regulate exhaust back-pressure
To filter salt from sea air
To cool compressed air from the turbocharger before it enters the engine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To cool compressed air from the turbocharger before it enters the engine

Cooling the compressed air after the turbocharger (charge air cooling) increases air density, improving combustion efficiency and reducing thermal stress.

Question 83: How often should STCW compliance training be conducted?

Only when violations occur
Only during initial orientation
At regular intervals as required by regulations (Correct answer)
Every five years

Correct answer: At regular intervals as required by regulations

Compliance training must be conducted at regular intervals as specified by applicable regulations to keep practitioners current.

Question 84: A crew member has inhaled toxic fumes in the engine room. He is conscious but coughing severely. What is the FIRST action?

Place in the recovery position and monitor
Administer oxygen at 15 L/min via non-rebreather mask
Remove the casualty to fresh air immediately (Correct answer)
Give water to drink to dilute the inhaled toxin

Correct answer: Remove the casualty to fresh air immediately

Removing the casualty from the toxic atmosphere to fresh air is the immediate priority before any other treatment.

Question 85: Which STCW table specifies the minimum standards of competence for proficiency in survival craft and rescue boats other than fast rescue boats?

Table A-III/1
Table A-VI/1-1
Table A-II/1
Table A-VI/2-1 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Table A-VI/2-1

STCW Table A-VI/2-1 sets out the minimum standards of competence for proficiency in survival craft and rescue boats other than fast rescue boats.

Question 86: What does 'PASS' stand for in the context of using a portable fire extinguisher?

Pull, Alert, Suppress, Signal
Point, Activate, Spray, Secure
Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep (Correct answer)
Prepare, Aim, Shoot, Scan

Correct answer: Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

PASS is a memory aid: Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep side to side.

Question 87: According to STCW, what is the minimum rest period that a watchkeeper must receive within any 24-hour period?

8 hours
12 hours
6 hours
10 hours (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 10 hours

STCW requires a minimum of 10 hours of rest in any 24-hour period, which may be split into no more than two periods, one of which must be at least 6 hours.

Question 88: What does the term 'muster' refer to in shipboard emergency procedures?

The process of launching lifeboats during an emergency
The inventory count of emergency equipment
The assembly of all crew and passengers at designated stations (Correct answer)
The inspection of lifesaving appliances by the chief officer

Correct answer: The assembly of all crew and passengers at designated stations

Mustering refers to assembling crew and passengers at their designated muster stations as directed by the ship's muster list.

Question 89: What is the function of a hydrostatic release unit (HRU) fitted to a liferaft?

It releases the liferaft painter line when the ship accelerates
It manually inflates the liferaft when pulled by a crew member
It automatically releases and inflates the liferaft when submerged to 1.5–4 meters (Correct answer)
It sends a distress signal when the vessel sinks

Correct answer: It automatically releases and inflates the liferaft when submerged to 1.5–4 meters

The HRU activates at a water pressure corresponding to a depth of 1.5–4 meters, automatically releasing and inflating the liferaft so it floats free.

Question 90: What is the MOST effective way for new STCW professionals to build competency in their field?

Combining formal education, mentored practice, and ongoing professional development (Correct answer)
Studying certification materials exclusively
Focusing solely on the most advanced topics
Learning entirely through trial and error

Correct answer: Combining formal education, mentored practice, and ongoing professional development

Question 91: What is the purpose of a permit-to-work system on board?

To record crew certifications
To formally authorize hazardous tasks and identify necessary precautions (Correct answer)
To schedule routine maintenance tasks
To track crew overtime hours

Correct answer: To formally authorize hazardous tasks and identify necessary precautions

Permits to work ensure that hazardous jobs are assessed, controls are in place, and responsible persons have authorized the work.

Question 92: A casualty is bleeding heavily from a deep laceration on the thigh. Direct pressure has been applied but bleeding is uncontrolled. What is the next step?

Apply a tourniquet 2–3 inches above the wound (Correct answer)
Elevate the limb only and continue pressure
Apply ice directly to the wound
Remove the dressing and pack the wound with gauze

Correct answer: Apply a tourniquet 2–3 inches above the wound

When direct pressure fails to control life-threatening extremity hemorrhage, a tourniquet applied above the wound is the next intervention.

Question 93: Foam concentrate is mixed with water to produce foam. A typical 3% AFFF concentrate means:

3 parts concentrate to 97 parts water (Correct answer)
3% of the foam is air
The foam lasts 3 minutes before breakdown
3 liters of foam per minute flow rate

Correct answer: 3 parts concentrate to 97 parts water

3% AFFF means 3 parts concentrate mixed with 97 parts water to create the foam solution.

Question 94: What is the primary consideration when implementing changes to marine engineering?

Speed of implementation
Personal convenience
Vendor preference
Impact assessment and change management (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Impact assessment and change management

Impact assessment and proper change management ensure that modifications do not introduce unexpected problems or service disruptions.

Question 95: A seafarer suffers a chemical splash to the eye. What is the immediate first aid priority?

Apply neutralizing solution matching the chemical type
Instill antibiotic eye drops from the ship's medical kit
Irrigate the eye with large amounts of clean water for at least 15–20 minutes (Correct answer)
Cover the eye with a sterile pad and seek medical help

Correct answer: Irrigate the eye with large amounts of clean water for at least 15–20 minutes

Immediate and prolonged irrigation with clean water dilutes and flushes out the chemical to minimize ocular damage.

Question 96: Which of the following correctly describes the 'recovery position' and its primary purpose?

Prone position to allow drainage from the chest in a drowning victim
Lateral position to keep the airway open and prevent aspiration in an unconscious breathing casualty (Correct answer)
Seated upright to ease breathing in a conscious casualty
Supine with legs elevated 30 cm to treat shock

Correct answer: Lateral position to keep the airway open and prevent aspiration in an unconscious breathing casualty

The recovery position places an unconscious, breathing casualty on their side so the airway remains open and fluids can drain without aspiration.

Question 97: What is the recommended rate of chest compressions during adult CPR?

80–100 compressions per minute
60–80 compressions per minute
100–120 compressions per minute (Correct answer)
120–140 compressions per minute

Correct answer: 100–120 compressions per minute

Current guidelines specify a compression rate of 100–120 per minute to achieve adequate cardiac output during CPR.

Question 98: What is a 'muster list' (station bill) required to show?

Cargo loading sequence for each port
Fuel consumption schedule for the voyage
Daily work assignments for each crew member
Emergency duties and stations for every person on board (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Emergency duties and stations for every person on board

The muster list specifies each crew member's emergency duties, stations, and responsibilities for abandon ship, fire, and other emergencies.

Question 99: When taking over a navigational watch, which action should be done LAST?

Formally relieve the outgoing officer and assume the watch (Correct answer)
Verify the vessel's position
Assess traffic in the area
Check the chart for hazards ahead

Correct answer: Formally relieve the outgoing officer and assume the watch

The relieving officer must complete all assessments before formally assuming the watch to ensure situational awareness.

Question 100: A crew member is experiencing signs of anaphylaxis after a bee sting. Which drug from the ship's medical kit should be administered first?

Inhaled salbutamol
Intramuscular epinephrine (adrenaline) (Correct answer)
Oral antihistamine tablet
Oral corticosteroid

Correct answer: Intramuscular epinephrine (adrenaline)

Intramuscular epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it rapidly reverses bronchoconstriction and vasodilation.

Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers (STCW)

The STCW Convention sets minimum qualification standards for masters, officers, and watch personnel on merchant ships, ensuring international safety and environmental protection at sea.

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