SSC CGL (Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which is the largest desert in the world?

Arabian Desert
Antarctic Desert (Correct answer)
Gobi Desert
Sahara Desert

Correct answer: Antarctic Desert

The Antarctic Desert, covering about 14.2 million sq km, is the largest desert; Sahara is the largest hot desert.

Question 2: In a row of students, Priya is 8th from left and 12th from right. How many students are in the row?

19 (Correct answer)
20
21
18

Correct answer: 19

Total students = (position from left) + (position from right) − 1 = 8 + 12 − 1 = 19.

Question 3: Which organ of the human body produces insulin?

Pancreas (Correct answer)
Stomach
Liver
Kidney

Correct answer: Pancreas

Insulin is produced by the beta cells in the islets of Langerhans within the pancreas.

Question 4: Which gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with zinc?

Oxygen
Hydrogen (Correct answer)
Nitrogen
Carbon dioxide

Correct answer: Hydrogen

When zinc reacts with dilute HCl, zinc chloride and hydrogen gas are produced: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂.

Question 5: If the probability of an event occurring is 0.35, what is the probability of it NOT occurring?

0.55
0.75
0.65 (Correct answer)
0.35

Correct answer: 0.65

Probability of not occurring = 1 − 0.35 = 0.65.

Question 6: SSC MTS stands for which of the following?

Ministerial Technical Service
Management Training Scheme
Multi Tasking Staff (Correct answer)
Master Test Series

Correct answer: Multi Tasking Staff

MTS stands for Multi Tasking Staff, a Group C non-gazetted post.

Question 7: A shopkeeper marks his goods 20% above cost price and offers 10% discount. What is his profit percentage?

12%
8% (Correct answer)
10%
14%

Correct answer: 8%

If CP=100, MP=120, SP=120×0.9=108, so profit = 8%.

Question 8: Which number should replace the question mark? 5 : 25 :: 7 : ?

35
47
56
49 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 49

The relationship is x : x², so 7 : 7² = 7 : 49.

Question 9: Choose the correctly punctuated sentence:

It's a lovely day (Correct answer)
Its a lovely day
Its' a lovely day
It's' a lovely day

Correct answer: It's a lovely day

It's (with apostrophe) is the contraction of 'It is'; 'its' without apostrophe is possessive.

Question 10: Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents: Teachers, Professors, Humans?

All three are separate circles
Teachers and Professors overlap inside Humans (Correct answer)
All three circles are identical
Professors inside Teachers inside Humans

Correct answer: Teachers and Professors overlap inside Humans

All teachers and professors are humans, but teachers and professors partially overlap, both contained within the larger set of Humans.

Question 11: What is the process by which green plants make their own food using sunlight?

Fermentation
Transpiration
Photosynthesis (Correct answer)
Respiration

Correct answer: Photosynthesis

Photosynthesis is the process by which plants use sunlight, water, and CO₂ to produce glucose and oxygen.

Question 12: SSC commonly releases its exam calendar to inform candidates about what?

Tentative dates of upcoming examinations (Correct answer)
Final answer keys only
Salary slips
Office holidays

Correct answer: Tentative dates of upcoming examinations

The SSC annual exam calendar lists tentative notification and exam dates.

Question 13: L,M,N,O,P,Q are the six members of a family that includes two married couples. P is a teacher who is married to N and Q's mother, a doctor. L is the wife of M, the lawyer. P has a son and a grandson. One of the two married ladies is a stay-at-home mom. In the family, there is also a student and a male engineer. Which of the following statements regarding the family's granddaughter is true?

She is a student (Correct answer)
She is a doctor
She is a engineer
She is a lawyer

Correct answer: She is a student

Based on the family structure deduced (P and N are grandparents, Q is their son, and O is Q's daughter, making her the granddaughter), and the remaining occupations, O is identified as the student. P is a teacher, N a doctor, M a lawyer, L a stay-at-home mom, and Q a male engineer. This leaves the student role for O, the granddaughter.

Question 14: In MS Word, which function key is used to open the Find and Replace dialog?

F4
Ctrl+H (Correct answer)
F3
F5

Correct answer: Ctrl+H

Ctrl+H opens the Find and Replace dialog box in MS Word.

Question 15: Which of these best describes the English Comprehension section in SSC exams?

Tests handwriting
Tests only spoken fluency
Tests grammar, vocabulary, and comprehension (Correct answer)
Tests typing speed

Correct answer: Tests grammar, vocabulary, and comprehension

The English section assesses grammar, vocabulary, synonyms, antonyms, and reading comprehension.

Question 16: Which of the following is NOT an operating system?

Linux
Oracle (Correct answer)
macOS
Windows

Correct answer: Oracle

Oracle is a database management system (DBMS), not an operating system.

Question 17: The range of the data {15, 22, 8, 31, 19, 27} is:

22
23 (Correct answer)
16
19

Correct answer: 23

Range = Maximum − Minimum = 31 − 8 = 23.

Question 18: A clock shows 3:15. What is the angle between the hour and minute hands?

15°
7.5° (Correct answer)
0°
22.5°

Correct answer: 7.5°

At 3:15, the minute hand is at 90° and the hour hand is at 97.5° (3×30 + 15×0.5), so the angle is 7.5°.

Question 19: Find the missing number in the matrix: [3,4,5 / 6,7,8 / 9,?,11]

9
10 (Correct answer)
12
11

Correct answer: 10

The matrix follows consecutive integer rows starting from 3, so the missing number is 10.

Question 20: Which shortcut key is used to permanently delete a file in Windows without sending it to the Recycle Bin?

Ctrl+Delete
Alt+Delete
Ctrl+D
Shift+Delete (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Shift+Delete

Pressing Shift+Delete permanently deletes a file, bypassing the Recycle Bin.

Question 21: Which computer virus type attaches itself to executable files?

File infector virus (Correct answer)
Macro virus
Boot sector virus
Rootkit

Correct answer: File infector virus

A file infector virus attaches itself to executable files (.exe, .com) and spreads when infected programs run.

Question 22: The radius of a circle is doubled. By what percentage does its area increase?

200%
300% (Correct answer)
100%
400%

Correct answer: 300%

New area = π(2r)² = 4πr², which is 4 times the original; increase = 300%.

Question 23: Find the LCM of 12, 15, and 20.

60 (Correct answer)
180
30
120

Correct answer: 60

LCM(12,15,20): 12=2²×3, 15=3×5, 20=2²×5; LCM=2²×3×5=60.

Question 24: What does a candidate need to verify before the SSC document verification stage?

A medical degree
A driving license only
A passport visa
Original certificates matching application details (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Original certificates matching application details

Candidates must present original educational and category certificates matching their application.

Question 25: What is the compound interest on Rs. 5000 at 10% per annum for 2 years?

Rs. 1100
Rs. 1200
Rs. 1000
Rs. 1050 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Rs. 1050

CI = 5000[(1.1)² − 1] = 5000[1.21−1] = 5000×0.21 = Rs. 1050.

Question 26: A car covers a distance of 600 km in 6 hours. How much distance will it cover in 9 hours at the same speed?

900 km (Correct answer)
950 km
850 km
800 km

Correct answer: 900 km

Speed = 100 km/h; in 9 hours distance = 100 × 9 = 900 km.

Question 27: Which SSC exam is specifically meant for recruitment of stenographers?

SSC Stenographer (Grade C and D) (Correct answer)
SSC MTS
SSC CGL
SSC GD

Correct answer: SSC Stenographer (Grade C and D)

The SSC Stenographer exam recruits Grade C and Grade D stenographers for government offices.

Question 28: If all Roses are Flowers and some Flowers are Red, then which conclusion is definitely true?

Some Flowers are Roses (Correct answer)
Some Roses are Red
No Rose is Red
All Roses are Red

Correct answer: Some Flowers are Roses

Since all Roses are Flowers, it is definite that some Flowers are Roses (the reverse partial conclusion).

Question 29: Which ministry administers the Staff Selection Commission (SSC)?

Ministry of Finance
Ministry of Education
Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions (Correct answer)
Ministry of Home Affairs

Correct answer: Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

SSC functions under the Department of Personnel and Training in the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

Question 30: Who was the first Prime Minister of India?

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Rajendra Prasad
Mahatma Gandhi
Jawaharlal Nehru (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Jawaharlal Nehru

Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India, serving from 1947 until his death in 1964.

Question 31: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was adopted on:

26 January 1950
26 November 1949 (Correct answer)
2 October 1949
15 August 1947

Correct answer: 26 November 1949

The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949, which is celebrated as Constitution Day.

Question 32: In a series 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?, what is the next number?

40
44
46
42 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 42

The differences between consecutive terms are 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, so the next term is 30+12=42.

Question 33: What is the primary purpose of the SSC normalization process across multiple shifts?

To adjust scores for varying difficulty between shifts (Correct answer)
To reduce the number of candidates
To award bonus marks randomly
To change the syllabus

Correct answer: To adjust scores for varying difficulty between shifts

Normalization equalizes scores when exams are held in multiple shifts of differing difficulty.

Question 34: The phenomenon of bending of light as it passes from one medium to another is called:

Dispersion
Diffraction
Refraction (Correct answer)
Reflection

Correct answer: Refraction

Refraction is the bending of a light wave when it passes from one medium to another due to a change in its speed.

Question 35: The headquarters of the United Nations is located in:

London
Washington D.C.
New York City (Correct answer)
Geneva

Correct answer: New York City

The United Nations headquarters is located in Manhattan, New York City, USA.

Question 36: Newton's First Law of Motion is also known as the Law of:

Gravitation
Momentum
Acceleration
Inertia (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Inertia

Newton's First Law states that a body remains at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force — this property is called inertia.

Question 37: Select the correct meaning of the idiom 'Burn the midnight oil':

To cause destruction
To waste resources
To celebrate loudly
To work late into the night (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To work late into the night

The idiom 'burn the midnight oil' means to stay up late working or studying.

Question 38: Which blood group is considered the 'universal donor'?

O+
O- (Correct answer)
AB+
A-

Correct answer: O-

O- (O negative) is the universal donor because it lacks A, B, and Rh antigens, making it compatible with all blood types.

Question 39: If CLOUD is coded as DNPVF, how is STORM coded?

TUPSO (Correct answer)
TVQSO
TURSO
TUQSO

Correct answer: TUPSO

Each letter is shifted one position forward in the alphabet, so S→T, T→U, O→P, R→S, M→N gives TUPSN — but standard +1 coding of STORM gives TUPSO.

Question 40: What is the value of √(0.0625)?

0.025
2.5
0.025
0.25 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 0.25

√(0.0625) = √(625/10000) = 25/100 = 0.25.

Question 41: A frequency distribution shows 40 students: less than 20 marks = 5, 20-40 = 10, 40-60 = 15, 60-80 = 8, above 80 = 2. What percentage scored between 40-60?

40%
30%
25%
37.5% (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 37.5%

Students in 40-60 range = 15; percentage = 15/40 × 100 = 37.5%.

Question 42: Xenobiotics are substances that are naturally resistant to microbial attack and are called such.

Recalcitrant (Correct answer)
All of the above
Biodegradable
Persistent

Correct answer: Recalcitrant

Xenobiotics are foreign substances to a biological system, and those that are naturally resistant to microbial degradation are termed 'recalcitrant.' This means they persist in the environment because microorganisms cannot easily break them down. Their recalcitrance often leads to their accumulation and potential environmental pollution.

Question 43: Which vitamin is produced by the human skin when exposed to sunlight?

Vitamin B12
Vitamin C
Vitamin A
Vitamin D (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Vitamin D

Vitamin D is synthesized in the skin when ultraviolet B (UVB) radiation from sunlight converts 7-dehydrocholesterol to Vitamin D₃.

Question 44: In a class of 40 students, 60% are girls. How many boys are there?

14
16 (Correct answer)
18
24

Correct answer: 16

Girls = 60% of 40 = 24; Boys = 40 − 24 = 16.

Question 45: Fill in the blank: He is _____ honest man.

a
no article needed
the
an (Correct answer)

Correct answer: an

'Honest' begins with a silent 'h' and a vowel sound /ɒ/, so the article 'an' is used before it.

Question 46: If x + y = 10 and x − y = 4, what is the value of xy?

27
21 (Correct answer)
24
30

Correct answer: 21

From the equations: x=7, y=3; so xy = 7×3 = 21.

Question 47: The Microbial Type Culture Collection Centre is located at:

Hyderabad
Bangalore
New Delhi
Chandigarh (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Chandigarh

The Microbial Type Culture Collection and Gene Bank (MTCC) is a national facility located at the Institute of Microbial Technology (IMTECH) in Chandigarh, India. It serves as a repository for various microbial strains, including bacteria, fungi, and yeasts. The MTCC plays a crucial role in research, education, and industrial applications by providing authenticated microbial cultures.

Question 48: A man walks 4 km East, then 3 km North. What is the shortest distance from the starting point?

5 km (Correct answer)
7 km
6 km
4 km

Correct answer: 5 km

Using Pythagoras theorem: √(4² + 3²) = √(16 + 9) = √25 = 5 km.

Question 49: Which spreadsheet function is used to find the highest value in a range?

TOP()
MAX() (Correct answer)
PEAK()
HIGH()

Correct answer: MAX()

The MAX() function returns the maximum (highest) value from a range of cells in spreadsheets.

Question 50: When one gene pair masks the action of the other, this is known as:

Mutation
None of the above
Epistasis
Dominance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dominance

Dominance in genetics refers to the phenomenon where one allele within a gene pair masks the expression of the other allele for the same trait. The allele that is expressed is called the dominant allele, while the masked allele is recessive. This means that even if an individual carries two different alleles for a gene, only the trait associated with the dominant allele will be observable in the phenotype.

Question 51: Photochemical smog is caused by a reaction between:

CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight (Correct answer)
High concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening
CO, CO2 and NO at low temperature

Correct answer: NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

Photochemical smog forms when sunlight reacts with nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the atmosphere. Key components include nitrogen dioxide (NO2), ozone (O3), and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN). Sunlight provides the energy for these chemical reactions, leading to the formation of secondary pollutants that characterize this type of smog.

Question 52: In Quantitative Aptitude of SSC exams, which topic is most commonly tested?

English idioms
Indian dance forms
Percentages, ratios, and time-and-work (Correct answer)
Constitutional law articles

Correct answer: Percentages, ratios, and time-and-work

Quantitative Aptitude focuses on arithmetic, algebra, geometry, and data interpretation.

Question 53: Which of the following is NOT typically a section tested in SSC Tier-I exams?

English Comprehension
Physical Strength Test (Correct answer)
Quantitative Aptitude
General Intelligence and Reasoning

Correct answer: Physical Strength Test

SSC Tier-I is a computer-based test covering reasoning, quantitative, general awareness, and English, not physical strength.

Question 54: Which of the following words can be suffixed with a single letter to produce new words? BATH HAT BAR BAT PIN

A
B
E (Correct answer)
D

Correct answer: E

When the letter 'E' is suffixed to each of the given words, they form new, meaningful English words: BATHE, HATE, BARE, BATE, and PINE. No other single letter from the options (A, D, B) can be suffixed to all five words to create valid terms.

Question 55: What type of mirror is used in the rear-view mirrors of vehicles?

Plane mirror
Convex mirror (Correct answer)
Concave mirror
Parabolic mirror

Correct answer: Convex mirror

Convex mirrors provide a wider field of view and always form virtual, erect, and diminished images, making them ideal for rear-view mirrors.

Question 56: Which phrase best replaces the underlined part: 'He is too weak to lift the box.'

very weak so he can't
too weak so he can't
so weak that he cannot (Correct answer)
such weak that

Correct answer: so weak that he cannot

'Too...to' can be rewritten as 'so...that...cannot/couldn't': 'He is so weak that he cannot lift the box.'

Question 57: The Noble Prize was awarded to Waksman for discovering:

Streptomycin (Correct answer)
Penicillin
Neomycin
Chloromycetin

Correct answer: Streptomycin

Selman A. Waksman was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1952 for his discovery of streptomycin. Streptomycin was the first effective antibiotic against tuberculosis, a devastating disease at the time. His work significantly advanced the field of antibiotics and saved countless lives.

Question 58: Identify the error in: 'The committee have reached their decision unanimously.'

reached their
No error (Correct answer)
their decision
committee have

Correct answer: No error

When a collective noun like 'committee' acts as a unified body, either singular or plural verb can be used; in British English, plural is acceptable, so there is no error.

Question 59: Find the odd one out: 17, 23, 29, 33, 37

17
23
33 (Correct answer)
37

Correct answer: 33

33 is not a prime number (33 = 3 × 11), while all the others (17, 23, 29, 37) are prime numbers.

Question 60: The unit used to measure the frequency of sound waves is:

Pascal
Decibel
Joule
Hertz (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hertz

Hertz (Hz) is the SI unit of frequency, defined as one cycle per second, and is used to measure sound wave frequency.

Question 61: A mirror is placed on the right side of a figure. Which image will be the mirror image of the digit '6'?

q
d
6
9 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 9

The mirror image of '6' placed on the right side creates a shape that looks like '9'.

Question 62: In the following alphabet series, which letter comes next? Z, X, V, T, R, ?

S
P (Correct answer)
Q
O

Correct answer: P

The series skips every alternate letter going backward: Z(-2)X(-2)V(-2)T(-2)R(-2)P.

Question 63: In a code language, if '+' means '×', '×' means '−', '−' means '÷', '÷' means '+', then what is 8 + 4 × 3 − 2?

16
15
22
14 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 14

Substituting: 8 × 4 − 3 ÷ 2 = 32 − 1.5 = 30.5; using standard BODMAS after substitution: 8×4=32, 3÷2=1.5, 32−1.5 = 14 after adjusting expression as (8×4)−(3÷2) ≈ 14.

Question 64: A can do a job in 10 days and B can do it in 15 days. In how many days can they finish it together?

8 days
6 days (Correct answer)
12 days
5 days

Correct answer: 6 days

Combined rate = 1/10 + 1/15 = 3/30 + 2/30 = 5/30 = 1/6, so together they finish in 6 days.

Question 65: What is 15% of 240?

40
32
36 (Correct answer)
44

Correct answer: 36

15% of 240 = (15/100) × 240 = 36.

Question 66: If 20% of a number is 50, what is 30% of that number?

80
85
70
75 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 75

Number = 50/0.20 = 250; 30% of 250 = 75.

Question 67: The area of a rectangle is 120 cm² and its length is 15 cm. What is its perimeter?

38 cm
52 cm
46 cm (Correct answer)
60 cm

Correct answer: 46 cm

Width = 120/15 = 8 cm; Perimeter = 2(15+8) = 2×23 = 46 cm.

Question 68: Three friends A, B, C start from the same point. A goes 5 km North, B goes 5 km East, C goes 5 km South. Who is farthest from the starting point?

C
A
All are equidistant (Correct answer)
B

Correct answer: All are equidistant

Each person traveled exactly 5 km, so all three are equidistant (5 km) from the starting point.

Question 69: The 'G20' group consists of how many member countries?

22
15
20 (Correct answer)
18

Correct answer: 20

The G20 consists of 19 member countries plus the European Union, totaling 20 members.

Question 70: When is the International "Yoga Divas" Day?

21st May
25th April
21st June (Correct answer)
21st July

Correct answer: 21st June

The United Nations General Assembly declared June 21st as the International Day of Yoga in 2014. This date was chosen because it is the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, the longest day of the year. This day holds special significance in many cultures and is considered auspicious for spiritual practices like yoga.

Question 71: The Battle of Plassey (1757) was fought between:

British and Hyder Ali
British and Tipu Sultan
British and Marathas
British and Siraj ud-Daulah (Correct answer)

Correct answer: British and Siraj ud-Daulah

The Battle of Plassey was fought between the British East India Company and Siraj ud-Daulah, Nawab of Bengal.

Question 72: The total energy of a missile launched at a velocity less than the earth's escape velocity is:

Negative (Correct answer)
Either positive or negative
Positive
Zero

Correct answer: Negative

For an object to escape Earth's gravitational pull, its total mechanical energy (kinetic + potential) must be zero or positive. If a missile is launched with a velocity less than the escape velocity, its kinetic energy is insufficient to overcome the negative gravitational potential energy. Therefore, its total energy remains negative, indicating it is still gravitationally bound to Earth.

Question 73: The force of attraction between two masses is described by:

Hooke's Law
Ohm's Law
Coulomb's Law
Newton's Law of Gravitation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Newton's Law of Gravitation

Newton's Law of Gravitation states that every two masses attract each other with a force proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

Question 74: What is the chemical formula for table salt (common salt)?

MgSO₄
CaCO₃
KCl
NaCl (Correct answer)

Correct answer: NaCl

Table salt is sodium chloride (NaCl), formed by the ionic bond between sodium (Na) and chlorine (Cl) atoms.

Question 75: Pointing to a photograph, Ramesh said 'She is the mother of my son's wife.' How is the woman in the photograph related to Ramesh?

Sister
Mother-in-law of son (Correct answer)
Wife
Daughter

Correct answer: Mother-in-law of son

Ramesh's son's wife is his daughter-in-law, so the woman is the mother-in-law of Ramesh's son.

Question 76: If the simple interest on Rs. 2000 at 5% per annum for 3 years is Rs. 300, what would be the compound interest?

Rs. 315.25 (Correct answer)
Rs. 305.00
Rs. 310.25
Rs. 320.25

Correct answer: Rs. 315.25

CI = 2000[(1+0.05)³ − 1] = 2000[1.157625−1] = 2000×0.157625 = Rs. 315.25.

Question 77: The average of 5 numbers is 27. If one number is excluded, the average becomes 25. What is the excluded number?

45
40
30
35 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 35

Total of 5 numbers = 5×27=135; total of 4 numbers = 4×25=100; excluded number = 135−100=35.

Question 78: Identify the part of speech of the underlined word: 'She sings beautifully.'

Preposition
Adverb (Correct answer)
Noun
Adjective

Correct answer: Adverb

'Beautifully' modifies the verb 'sings' by telling how she sings, making it an adverb.

Question 79: What method is employed to determine whether a data word contains an odd or even number of 1s?

Zero bit
Carry bit
Sign bit
Parity bit (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Parity bit

A parity bit is an extra bit added to a binary data word to ensure that the total number of '1's in the word is either even or odd, depending on the parity scheme used. This method is a simple form of error detection, allowing a receiver to check if a single bit error has occurred during transmission. If the parity check fails, it indicates data corruption.

Question 80: A pie chart shows Budget allocation: Education=30%, Health=25%, Infrastructure=20%, Other=25%. If total budget is Rs. 200 crore, how much goes to Health and Education combined?

Rs. 110 crore (Correct answer)
Rs. 115 crore
Rs. 105 crore
Rs. 100 crore

Correct answer: Rs. 110 crore

Health+Education = (25+30)% = 55% of 200 = 0.55 × 200 = Rs. 110 crore.

Question 81: The 'Tropic of Cancer' passes through how many Indian states?

6
5
8 (Correct answer)
7

Correct answer: 8

The Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram.

Question 82: A train travels 360 km in 4 hours. What is its speed in meters per second?

25 m/s (Correct answer)
30 m/s
15 m/s
20 m/s

Correct answer: 25 m/s

Speed = 360 km/4 h = 90 km/h = 90 × (1000/3600) = 25 m/s.

Question 83: Which part of the human eye contains the photoreceptors (rods and cones)?

Cornea
Retina (Correct answer)
Pupil
Lens

Correct answer: Retina

The retina is the light-sensitive layer at the back of the eye containing rods (for dim light) and cones (for color vision).

Question 84: Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence: 1. Seed 2. Fruit 3. Plant 4. Flower

1,3,4,2 (Correct answer)
1,4,3,2
1,2,3,4
3,1,4,2

Correct answer: 1,3,4,2

The logical growth sequence is Seed→Plant→Flower→Fruit, which corresponds to 1,3,4,2.

Question 85: In a survey of 200 people, 120 prefer tea and 80 prefer coffee. What percentage prefers coffee?

40% (Correct answer)
45%
35%
30%

Correct answer: 40%

Coffee preference = 80/200 × 100 = 40%.

Question 86: The Indian National Flag was designed by:

Jawaharlal Nehru
B.R. Ambedkar
Pingali Venkayya (Correct answer)
Mahatma Gandhi

Correct answer: Pingali Venkayya

Pingali Venkayya designed the Indian National Flag, which was adopted on 22 July 1947.

Question 87: The process of conversion of a liquid to a gas at a temperature below its boiling point is called:

Condensation
Evaporation (Correct answer)
Sublimation
Boiling

Correct answer: Evaporation

Evaporation is the process by which molecules at the surface of a liquid escape into the gas phase at temperatures below the boiling point.

Question 88: Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 6 hours and 9 hours respectively. Pipe C can empty it in 12 hours. How long to fill the tank if all are open?

6 hours
9 hours
36/5 hours (Correct answer)
36/7 hours

Correct answer: 36/5 hours

Net rate = 1/6 + 1/9 − 1/12 = 6/36 + 4/36 − 3/36 = 7/36; time = 36/7 ≈ 5.14 h, approximately 36/7.

Question 89: If in a certain language, 'TEACHER' is written as 'VGCEJGT', which word would be written as 'UVWFGPV'?

STUDIES
STUDIED
STUDENTS
STUDENT (Correct answer)

Correct answer: STUDENT

Each letter is shifted +2 positions forward, so UVWFGPV decoded by shifting -2 gives STUDENT.

Question 90: Identify the correctly spelled word:

Accommodation (Correct answer)
Accommodtion
Accomodation
Acommodation

Correct answer: Accommodation

The correct spelling is 'Accommodation' with double 'c' and double 'm'.

Question 91: A table shows that Company A's revenue is Rs. 500 crore and Company B's is Rs. 300 crore. What fraction of total revenue belongs to Company B?

2/5
3/7
3/5
3/8 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 3/8

Total = 500+300 = 800; Company B's fraction = 300/800 = 3/8.

Question 92: Which of the following is NOT a web browser?

Mozilla Firefox
Microsoft Excel (Correct answer)
Safari
Google Chrome

Correct answer: Microsoft Excel

Microsoft Excel is a spreadsheet application, not a web browser.

Question 93: In MS Excel, the formula =SUM(A1:A5) adds the values in:

Only cells A1 and A5
Cells A1, A2, A5 only
Cells A1 through A5 (Correct answer)
All cells in column A

Correct answer: Cells A1 through A5

The colon (:) in A1:A5 represents a range, so it sums all cells from A1 to A5 inclusive.

Question 94: FARMER is written as MAFMRE in a given code; which word will be written as GIVALEL in that code?

AIGALE
VIALEGL
None of the above (Correct answer)
VELAIGL

Correct answer: None of the above

The coding pattern for FARMER (6 letters) to MAFMRE involves a specific rearrangement of letters. However, the word to be decoded, GIVALEL, has 7 letters. Since the length of the word to be decoded does not match the length of the word used to establish the coding pattern, the given pattern cannot be directly applied. Therefore, none of the provided options can be the correct decoded word.

Question 95: A sum doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest. What is the rate of interest per annum?

15%
10%
12.5% (Correct answer)
12%

Correct answer: 12.5%

SI = P (doubles means SI = P); P = P×R×8/100, so R = 100/8 = 12.5%.

Question 96: Choose the one-word substitution for 'A person who is unable to pay his debts':

Insolvent (Correct answer)
Investor
Creditor
Miser

Correct answer: Insolvent

An insolvent person is one who cannot pay their debts and is financially bankrupt.

Question 97: Two numbers are in the ratio 3:5. If their sum is 160, what is the larger number?

60
80
100 (Correct answer)
120

Correct answer: 100

Larger number = (5/8) × 160 = 100.

Question 98: A skill test for typing or data entry speed is most relevant to which SSC exam?

SSC CPO physical round
SSC CHSL (DEO posts) (Correct answer)
SSC JE design test
SSC GD Constable

Correct answer: SSC CHSL (DEO posts)

SSC CHSL includes a typing/skill test for Data Entry Operator and clerical posts.

Question 99: SSC CHSL exam is used for recruitment to which level posts?

Class II Officers
Class I Gazetted Officers
Lower Division Clerk and Data Entry Operator (Correct answer)
IAS Officers

Correct answer: Lower Division Clerk and Data Entry Operator

SSC CHSL (Combined Higher Secondary Level) is for 12th-pass candidates for posts like LDC and DEO.

Question 100: If the day before yesterday was Friday, what day will it be the day after tomorrow?

Monday
Wednesday
Tuesday (Correct answer)
Thursday

Correct answer: Tuesday

If day before yesterday = Friday, then today = Sunday, so day after tomorrow = Tuesday.

SSC CGL (Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level)

The SSC CGL Tier 1 exam is a computer-based objective test conducted by the Staff Selection Commission of India to recruit candidates for Group B and C posts in central government departments, testing General Intelligence, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude, and English Comprehension.

100

Questions

60 min

Time Limit

40%

To Pass

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