SQE Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield SQE facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which of the following is an equitable remedy? → Specific performance
2. What is a 'settlement agreement'? → A voluntary agreement between parties to resolve a dispute and avoid further legal action
3. In contract law, what is the 'mirror image rule'? → The acceptance must match the offer exactly
4. Which document transfers legal title to registered land in England and Wales? → TR1
5. Under the Sentencing Code, what does the 'totality principle' require when sentencing for multiple offences? → That the overall sentence reflects the totality of offending and is just and proportionate
6. Under the Criminal Procedure Rules, what is the overriding objective? → That criminal cases be dealt with justly
7. Which priority search protects a buyer between exchange of contracts and completion? → OS1
8. What is the standard period for a pre-contract search with the local authority? → LLC1 and Con29
9. What is the significance of a 'caution' given by police to a suspect before questioning under PACE Code C? → It informs the suspect of the right to silence and that silence may be used in court
10. Which document governs the internal management of a company under the Companies Act 2006? → Articles of Association
11. What is the mens rea required for murder under English law? → Intention to kill or cause grievous bodily harm
12. What is 'adverse possession' in land law? → Acquiring title by long, open, and uninterrupted occupation of land
13. Which legal concept describes a right to use another person's land for a specific purpose? → Easement
14. Under the Land Registration Act 2002, what is the time limit to register a first registration of title following a qualifying disposition? → 2 months
15. Under the Consumer Protection Act 1987, what type of liability does a producer bear for damage caused by a defective product? → Strict liability, without the need for the claimant to prove fault or negligence
16. What is the primary function of judicial review? → To assess the constitutionality of legislative acts
17. What is the purpose of a 'disclosure letter' in a share purchase transaction? → To qualify the seller's warranties by disclosing known exceptions
18. What is 'mediation' in the context of dispute resolution? → A process where a neutral third party helps parties reach a voluntary agreement
19. Which Act governs the admissibility of bad character evidence in criminal proceedings? → Criminal Justice Act 2003
20. What is a primary source in legal research? → A statute or a court decision
21. Which tax is payable on a transfer of shares in a UK company? → Stamp Duty at 0.5%
22. What is the primary purpose of legal research? → To gather relevant legal information to support a case
23. Under the Law of Property Act 1925, what is the maximum duration for a legal lease created without deed? → 3 years
24. Under the Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975, who can apply to the court for financial provision from a deceased's estate? → Spouse, former spouse, cohabitant, child, or dependant of the deceased
25. Under the Theft Act 1968, which element is NOT required to establish theft? → Violence or threat
26. In leasehold transactions, what document sets out the service charge obligations between landlord and tenant? → The lease
27. What is the effect of marriage on a pre-existing will? → It automatically revokes the will
28. What is the effect of a defendant raising the defence of self-defence in a criminal trial? → The prosecution must disprove self-defence beyond reasonable doubt
29. In the tort of passing off, which classic trilogy of requirements was established in Reckitt & Colman Products Ltd v Borden Inc [1990]? → Goodwill, misrepresentation, and damage
30. Under the Bail Act 1976, what is the general right for a defendant charged with a criminal offence? → A presumption in favour of bail unless statutory grounds for refusing bail exist