SPEX Analysis Exam Flashcards
7 cards from real SPEX practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 SPEX Analysis Exam flashcards as text
A 58-year-old man presents with sudden-onset severe headache described as 'the worst headache of my life.' What is the most critical diagnosis to rule out?
Answer: Subarachnoid hemorrhage
A sudden, severe 'thunderclap' headache must be presumed to be subarachnoid hemorrhage until proven otherwise by CT and lumbar puncture.
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial antibiotic choice for community-acquired pneumonia in a healthy outpatient without comorbidities?
Answer: Azithromycin or amoxicillin
Current IDSA/ATS guidelines recommend azithromycin or amoxicillin as first-line therapy for outpatient CAP in patients without comorbidities.
A 45-year-old woman with Type 2 diabetes has a blood pressure of 138/88 mmHg on two separate visits. Which antihypertensive drug class is preferred as first-line therapy?
Answer: ACE inhibitors or ARBs
ACE inhibitors and ARBs are preferred in diabetic patients with hypertension due to their renoprotective effects.
On a 12-lead ECG, which finding is most consistent with an acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) of the anterior wall?
Answer: ST elevation in leads V1–V4
ST elevation in the precordial leads V1–V4 indicates anterior STEMI, most commonly due to left anterior descending artery occlusion.
A physician is unsure whether a 70-year-old patient with newly diagnosed prostate cancer would benefit from aggressive treatment. What is the most appropriate next step?
Answer: Obtain a Gleason score and stage the cancer
Risk stratification using Gleason score, PSA level, and clinical stage is essential before deciding on treatment in prostate cancer.
Which of the following is a recognized criterion for diagnosing metabolic syndrome according to the ATP III guidelines?
Answer: Fasting glucose ≥ 110 mg/dL
ATP III defines metabolic syndrome as having three or more of five criteria, including fasting glucose ≥ 110 mg/dL (updated to ≥ 100 mg/dL in later revisions).
A 32-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation has a blood pressure of 155/100 mmHg and 2+ proteinuria on two occasions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Preeclampsia
Preeclampsia is defined as hypertension ≥ 140/90 mmHg plus proteinuria occurring after 20 weeks of gestation.