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Obstetrics and Gynecology Flashcards

7 cards from real SPEX practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Obstetrics and Gynecology flashcards as text

  1. A 24-year-old presents with secondary amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and headaches. Serum prolactin is 180 ng/mL. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Prolactinoma

    Markedly elevated prolactin with galactorrhea, amenorrhea, and headaches (from mass effect) is classic for a prolactin-secreting pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma).

  2. During a routine gynecologic exam, a 45-year-old woman is found to have a vulvar lesion. Biopsy shows lichen sclerosus. Which is the first-line treatment?

    Answer: High-potency topical corticosteroids

    High-potency topical corticosteroids such as clobetasol propionate are the first-line treatment for lichen sclerosus, providing symptom relief and preventing disease progression.

  3. A 30-year-old woman with recurrent implantation failure is found to have a submucosal fibroid. What is the recommended treatment?

    Answer: Hysteroscopic myomectomy

    Hysteroscopic myomectomy is the preferred minimally invasive approach to remove submucosal fibroids that distort the uterine cavity and impair implantation.

  4. Which laboratory finding is most consistent with a diagnosis of HELLP syndrome?

    Answer: Low platelets, elevated LDH, elevated liver enzymes

    HELLP syndrome is defined by Hemolysis (elevated LDH), Elevated Liver enzymes (AST/ALT), and Low Platelets — a life-threatening complication of severe preeclampsia.

  5. A 22-year-old presents with acute pelvic pain, fever, cervical motion tenderness, and mucopurulent cervical discharge. What is the recommended outpatient antibiotic regimen?

    Answer: Ceftriaxone IM plus doxycycline and metronidazole

    CDC guidelines recommend ceftriaxone IM plus doxycycline with metronidazole for outpatient treatment of PID to cover gonorrhea, chlamydia, and anaerobes.

  6. A postmenopausal woman on tamoxifen for breast cancer reports vaginal bleeding. What is the most important next diagnostic step?

    Answer: Endometrial biopsy

    Tamoxifen increases endometrial cancer risk; any postmenopausal bleeding in a tamoxifen user requires endometrial biopsy to rule out endometrial carcinoma.

  7. Which type of urinary incontinence is best treated with pelvic floor physical therapy and bladder training?

    Answer: Urge incontinence

    Urge incontinence (overactive bladder) responds well to behavioral interventions including bladder training and pelvic floor exercises as first-line therapy.