Practice Test GeeksSPEX Exam Practice Test
← All SPEX Flashcard Decks

Obstetrics and Gynecology Flashcards

7 cards from real SPEX practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Obstetrics and Gynecology flashcards as text

  1. A 28-year-old at 32 weeks gestation presents with sudden painless vaginal bleeding. Fetal heart tones are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Placenta previa

    Painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is the classic presentation of placenta previa, where the placenta overlies the cervical os.

  2. Which tocolytic agent is contraindicated in a patient with gestational hypertension requiring treatment for preterm labor?

    Answer: Terbutaline

    Terbutaline (a beta-agonist) can worsen hypertension and cause significant cardiovascular side effects, making it contraindicated in hypertensive patients.

  3. A multipara at 38 weeks has a Bishop score of 8. What does this indicate?

    Answer: The cervix is favorable for induction

    A Bishop score ≥8 indicates a favorable cervix with high likelihood of successful labor induction without the need for cervical ripening agents.

  4. What is the recommended management for a pregnant patient diagnosed with primary genital herpes at 36 weeks gestation?

    Answer: Acyclovir suppressive therapy until delivery

    Acyclovir suppressive therapy from 36 weeks reduces viral shedding and the risk of recurrent outbreak at delivery, decreasing the need for cesarean section.

  5. A woman at 10 weeks gestation is found to have a TSH of 0.05 mIU/L and elevated free T4. She has no symptoms. What is the most appropriate next step?

    Answer: Reassure and repeat labs in 4 weeks

    Gestational hyperthyroidism from hCG stimulation is common in the first trimester and typically resolves spontaneously; reassurance and follow-up is appropriate for asymptomatic cases.

  6. Which finding on fetal umbilical artery Doppler is most concerning for fetal compromise?

    Answer: Absent end-diastolic flow

    Absent or reversed end-diastolic flow on umbilical artery Doppler indicates severely increased placental vascular resistance and is associated with significant fetal compromise.

  7. A 35-year-old G2P1 at 16 weeks has a maternal serum AFP of 3.5 MoM. What is the most appropriate next step?

    Answer: Detailed fetal anatomy ultrasound

    Elevated maternal serum AFP (≥2.5 MoM) warrants detailed ultrasound to evaluate for open neural tube defects, abdominal wall defects, or other structural anomalies.