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Dermatology Flashcards

7 cards from real SPEX practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. Tinea versicolor, characterized by hypo- or hyperpigmented patches, is most commonly caused by which organism?

    Answer: Malassezia furfur

    Tinea versicolor is caused by Malassezia furfur (Pityrosporum ovale), a commensal yeast that overgrows in warm, humid conditions and disrupts normal skin pigmentation.

  2. Wickham striae—fine white lacy lines on skin lesions—are pathognomonic for which dermatological condition?

    Answer: Lichen planus

    Wickham striae are fine white lacy lines on lesion surfaces that serve as a characteristic diagnostic feature of lichen planus, a T-cell-mediated inflammatory condition.

  3. What is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated scabies in adults?

    Answer: Topical permethrin 5% cream

    Topical permethrin 5% cream is the first-line treatment for scabies, applied to the entire body from the neck down and left for 8-14 hours; oral ivermectin is an alternative for cases where topical treatment is impractical.

  4. Which subtype of melanoma carries the worst prognosis due to its rapid vertical growth phase without a preceding radial growth phase?

    Answer: Nodular melanoma

    Nodular melanoma has the worst prognosis because it grows vertically from the outset without a radial growth phase, resulting in greater depth of invasion at diagnosis and higher rates of metastasis.

  5. In the ABCDE criteria for evaluating suspicious skin lesions for melanoma, what does the 'E' stand for?

    Answer: Evolution or change over time

    In the ABCDE criteria (Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, Evolution), 'E' stands for Evolution—any change in size, shape, color, or symptoms such as bleeding over time.

  6. Target (iris) lesions with three concentric zones on the skin and mucous membranes are characteristic of which hypersensitivity reaction?

    Answer: Erythema multiforme

    Erythema multiforme is characterized by target or iris lesions with a central dark zone, pale edematous ring, and outer erythematous ring, most commonly triggered by herpes simplex virus.

  7. What is the first-line topical treatment for inflammatory rosacea (papules and pustules)?

    Answer: Topical metronidazole

    Topical metronidazole is a first-line treatment for inflammatory rosacea, reducing papules and pustules through anti-inflammatory mechanisms; topical azelaic acid is an effective alternative.