Neurology Flashcards
7 cards from real SPEX practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Neurology flashcards as text
A 60-year-old presents with sudden onset of the worst headache of his life. CT head is negative. What is the next best step?
Answer: Lumbar puncture
A negative CT does not rule out subarachnoid hemorrhage; lumbar puncture is required to detect xanthochromia or red blood cells.
Which dermatome corresponds to the area over the nipple line?
Answer: T4
T4 supplies the nipple line and is a classic landmark for dermatome mapping.
A patient with MS develops a painful, unilateral loss of vision with an afferent pupillary defect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Optic neuritis
Optic neuritis causes painful vision loss and a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD), and is strongly associated with MS.
Which of the following is characteristic of a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion?
Answer: Fasciculations
LMN lesions cause flaccid paralysis, hyporeflexia, atrophy, and fasciculations.
A 45-year-old woman presents with bilateral leg weakness, saddle anesthesia, and urinary retention after a fall. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Cauda equina syndrome
Cauda equina syndrome presents with saddle anesthesia, bowel/bladder dysfunction, and lower extremity weakness due to compression of lumbar nerve roots.
Which neurotransmitter is primarily deficient in Parkinson's disease?
Answer: Dopamine
Parkinson's disease results from degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta.
A patient presents with ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis on the right side of the face. Which syndrome does this represent?
Answer: Horner syndrome
Horner syndrome consists of ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis caused by interruption of the sympathetic pathway.