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Emergency Medicine Flashcards

7 cards from real SPEX practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Emergency Medicine flashcards as text

  1. A patient with atrial fibrillation presents with rapid ventricular response (HR 160) and hemodynamic instability. What is the immediate treatment?

    Answer: Synchronized cardioversion

    Hemodynamically unstable tachyarrhythmias require immediate synchronized cardioversion regardless of the rhythm.

  2. Which physical exam finding is MOST specific for cardiac tamponade?

    Answer: Pulsus paradoxus >10 mmHg

    Pulsus paradoxus greater than 10 mmHg is the most specific physical exam finding for cardiac tamponade, reflecting impaired ventricular filling with inspiration.

  3. A 25-year-old female presents with right lower quadrant pain, missed period, and a positive pregnancy test. The uterus is empty on ultrasound. What is the most concerning diagnosis?

    Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

    A positive pregnancy test with an empty uterus on ultrasound and abdominal pain must be presumed ectopic pregnancy until proven otherwise due to risk of rupture.

  4. Which maneuver should be performed when shoulder dystocia is encountered during delivery?

    Answer: McRoberts maneuver and suprapubic pressure

    McRoberts maneuver (hyperflexion of maternal thighs) combined with suprapubic pressure is the first-line intervention for shoulder dystocia.

  5. What is the most common cause of distributive shock?

    Answer: Sepsis

    Sepsis is the most common cause of distributive shock, characterized by vasodilation, decreased SVR, and initially elevated cardiac output.

  6. A patient presents with fever, neck stiffness, and photophobia. Before lumbar puncture, what imaging is required?

    Answer: CT head only if papilledema, focal neuro deficits, immunocompromised, or seizure

    CT head before LP is indicated only in specific high-risk features (papilledema, focal deficits, immunocompromise, new-onset seizure) to avoid herniation risk.

  7. A 60-year-old presents with acute onset unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and speech difficulty starting 2 hours ago. CT head is negative. What is the next step if no contraindications exist?

    Answer: tPA (alteplase) administration

    Acute ischemic stroke within the 4.5-hour window with no contraindications warrants IV tPA (alteplase) after CT rules out hemorrhage.