SM Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield SM facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which document serves as the foundational risk assessment tool required before initiating work with a select agent in a BSL-3 laboratory? → Agent-specific risk assessment
2. Which metric is used to assess the proportion of true positives correctly identified by a diagnostic microbiological test? → Sensitivity
3. Which phenotypic test is used in clinical microbiology labs to screen for extended-spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) production in Enterobacteriaceae? → Double-disk synergy test using clavulanate and cephalosporins
4. The serum galactomannan enzyme immunoassay (EIA) is an FDA-approved test for diagnosing invasive infection caused by which fungal genus? → Aspergillus
5. A specialist in microbiology professional discovers a discrepancy during professional ethics & standards review. What is the most appropriate immediate action? → Engaging stakeholders collaboratively to align goals and expectations
6. A specimen shows Pseudomonas aeruginosa resistant to all beta-lactams, fluoroquinolones, and aminoglycosides. This is classified as: → Extensively drug-resistant (XDR)
7. Which document serves as the primary ethical framework guiding clinical laboratory scientists in the United States? → ASCLS Code of Ethics
8. Which tool or methodology is most appropriate for analyzing immunology & host-microbe interactions outcomes? → Maintaining professional boundaries while building collaborative relationships
9. Which control measure is used to verify accuracy in microbiological testing? → Using positive and negative controls
10. What is the purpose of a delta check in clinical microbiology? → Compare current result to previous result for the same patient to detect errors
11. A laboratory's urine culture contamination rate rises from 3% to 12% over one month. Which is the MOST likely source? → Poor collection technique or patient instruction
12. What is the recommended frequency for reviewing and updating laboratory techniques & quality control protocols? → Monitoring outcomes through regular data collection and trend analysis
13. A specialist in microbiology professional discovers a discrepancy during risk management & mitigation review. What is the most appropriate immediate action? → Engaging stakeholders collaboratively to align goals and expectations
14. Which microorganism is capable of evading the immune system by antigenic variation? → Influenza virus
15. Which specimen type is preferred for diagnosis of lower respiratory tract viral infection including influenza and SARS-CoV-2 when bronchoscopy is performed? → Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) fluid
16. A new regulation impacts immunology & host-microbe interactions procedures. What should a SM professional do first? → Ensuring compliance with current regulatory requirements and standards
17. Which of the following is a key performance indicator for evaluating quality assurance & compliance effectiveness? → Prioritizing based on risk assessment and potential impact
18. Which enzyme is the target of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) used in HIV therapy? → Reverse transcriptase
19. A chain-of-custody form is MOST critical when handling which type of microbiology specimen? → Forensic or medicolegal specimen (e.g., sexual assault, legal case)
20. Which class of immunoglobulin is the first to be produced in response to an infection? → IgM
21. Which principle underpins the requirement for microbiologists to maintain competency through continuing education? → Beneficence toward patients by ensuring accurate and current laboratory services
22. A laboratory implements a new reporting template for antimicrobial susceptibility results. Which stakeholder group should be consulted during the design phase? → Clinicians, pharmacists, infection control, and laboratory staff collaboratively
23. Which tool or methodology is most appropriate for analyzing microbial identification & classification outcomes? → Maintaining professional boundaries while building collaborative relationships
24. A new regulation impacts infectious diseases & clinical applications procedures. What should a SM professional do first? → Ensuring compliance with current regulatory requirements and standards
25. During a communication & stakeholder engagement audit, which documentation is most critical to have readily available? → Conducting root cause analysis to identify underlying systemic issues
26. A microbiologist is drafting a laboratory newsletter article about antimicrobial stewardship for clinical staff. Which writing principle is most important? → Write at an appropriate reading level using clear language and actionable takeaways
27. A stakeholder questions the value of professional ethics & standards initiatives. Which response best demonstrates ROI? → Building a culture of accountability with transparent reporting
28. Which Candida species produces a germ tube when incubated in serum at 37°C for 2–3 hours? → Candida albicans
29. Which hepatitis virus is transmitted exclusively via the fecal-oral route and does NOT cause chronic infection? → Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
30. Which type of immunity results from vaccination? → Active immunity