Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Exam — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Under Regulation T, the initial margin requirement for purchasing equity securities is:
- 75%
- 25%
- 100%
- 50% (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 50%
Regulation T, set by the Federal Reserve, requires customers to deposit at least 50% of the purchase price of marginable securities.
Question 2: Which of the following describes the primary market?
- Where derivatives contracts are created
- Where securities are listed on exchanges
- Where investors trade securities among themselves
- Where new securities are first issued to the public (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Where new securities are first issued to the public
The primary market is where issuers sell new securities directly to investors, with proceeds going to the issuer.
Question 3: A futures contract obligates the buyer to:
- Purchase the underlying asset at a specified price on a future date (Correct answer)
- Pay a premium for the right to sell
- Sell the underlying asset immediately at market price
- Have the option to buy at a fixed price
Correct answer: Purchase the underlying asset at a specified price on a future date
Unlike options, futures contracts create a binding obligation to buy the underlying asset at the agreed price on the delivery date.
Question 4: What is a 'pink sheet' stock?
- A stock trading on the NYSE Amex exchange
- An OTC security not listed on a formal exchange, typically with less regulatory oversight (Correct answer)
- A preferred stock with a pink certificate
- A government bond issued by a foreign country
Correct answer: An OTC security not listed on a formal exchange, typically with less regulatory oversight
Pink sheet stocks trade over-the-counter outside major exchanges with minimal reporting requirements and less regulatory scrutiny.
Question 5: In a company liquidation, which security holders are paid LAST?
- Common stockholders (Correct answer)
- Preferred stockholders
- General creditors
- Secured bondholders
Correct answer: Common stockholders
In liquidation, common stockholders have the lowest priority and are paid only after all creditors and preferred shareholders.
Question 6: What must occur before a broker-dealer executes an options trade in a customer's account?
- Options agreement must be signed and account must be approved for options trading (Correct answer)
- The customer must have a minimum of $100,000 in the account
- The customer must be an accredited investor
- The trade must be approved by FINRA in advance
Correct answer: Options agreement must be signed and account must be approved for options trading
Options accounts require separate approval based on the customer's financial profile, and a signed options agreement before trading.
Question 7: Regular-way settlement for most equity securities occurs:
- 1 business day after the trade (T+1) (Correct answer)
- Same day as the trade
- 2 business days after the trade (T+2)
- 3 business days after the trade (T+3)
Correct answer: 1 business day after the trade (T+1)
Following the SEC's 2024 transition to T+1 settlement, most equity securities must settle one business day after the trade date.
Question 8: What is the primary purpose of the USA PATRIOT Act requirement for customer identification programs (CIP)?
- To verify customer identity and prevent money laundering (Correct answer)
- To prevent tax evasion on investment gains
- To ensure customers meet accredited investor standards
- To prevent market manipulation
Correct answer: To verify customer identity and prevent money laundering
CIP requirements under the PATRIOT Act require firms to verify customer identity to combat money laundering and terrorist financing.
Question 9: Reg BI (Regulation Best Interest) requires broker-dealers to:
- Act in the best interest of retail customers when making recommendations (Correct answer)
- Eliminate all sales commissions
- Recommend only no-load mutual funds
- Act only in a fiduciary capacity at all times
Correct answer: Act in the best interest of retail customers when making recommendations
Reg BI requires broker-dealers to place retail customers' best interests first when making investment recommendations.
Question 10: An investor who sells borrowed shares hoping to buy them back at a lower price is engaged in:
- Short selling (Correct answer)
- Arbitrage
- Margin buying
- Hedging
Correct answer: Short selling
Short selling involves borrowing and selling shares with the intent to repurchase them at a lower price and return them to the lender for a profit.
Question 11: Which of the following is a characteristic of exchange-traded options?
- Custom expiration dates negotiated between parties
- No margin requirements
- Traded only in the over-the-counter market
- Standardized contracts with set strike prices and expirations (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Standardized contracts with set strike prices and expirations
Exchange-listed options are standardized contracts with fixed strike prices, expiration dates, and contract sizes.
Question 12: Municipal bonds are issued by:
- Foreign governments
- The US federal government
- State and local governments (Correct answer)
- Federal agencies like Fannie Mae
Correct answer: State and local governments
Municipal bonds are issued by state, city, county, and other local government entities to fund public projects.
Question 13: What is the par value of a standard corporate bond?
- $1,000 (Correct answer)
- $10,000
- $500
- $100
Correct answer: $1,000
The standard par value (face value) for a corporate bond is $1,000, which is repaid at maturity.
Question 14: Under Regulation S-P, broker-dealers must provide customers with a privacy notice:
- Every five years
- Only when information is shared with third parties
- Annually and at account opening (Correct answer)
- Only upon request
Correct answer: Annually and at account opening
Regulation S-P requires financial institutions to deliver privacy notices at account opening and annually thereafter.
Question 15: When interest rates rise, what happens to the price of existing bonds?
- Bond prices become volatile but trend upward
- Bond prices fall (Correct answer)
- Bond prices remain unchanged
- Bond prices rise
Correct answer: Bond prices fall
Bond prices and interest rates have an inverse relationship; when rates rise, existing bonds with lower rates become less attractive, so their prices fall.
Question 16: What is a Uniform Gifts to Minors Act (UGMA) account?
- A trust account requiring court oversight
- A college savings account with tax benefits
- A retirement account for minors
- A custodial account holding assets for a minor, managed by an adult custodian (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A custodial account holding assets for a minor, managed by an adult custodian
A UGMA account is a custodial account where an adult manages assets on behalf of a minor until the minor reaches adulthood.
Question 17: FINRA would compel an investment manager to report on every activity listed below, with the exception of:
- An employee of the company donates $2,000 to a local political campaign.
- For a misdemeanor shoplifting charge, a firm employee is taken into custody.
- An employee of the company works for another financial institution, but they choose not to reveal this.
- A misdemeanor DUI offense results in the arrest of a firm employee. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A misdemeanor DUI offense results in the arrest of a firm employee.
FINRA requires firms to report certain events to maintain regulatory oversight and protect investors. Misdemeanor charges involving theft (like shoplifting) and undisclosed outside business activities (working for another financial institution without disclosure) are typically reportable as they relate to an individual's integrity or potential conflicts of interest. While a misdemeanor DUI offense is a serious matter, a mere *arrest* for a misdemeanor DUI may not always trigger an immediate, direct reporting requirement by the firm to FINRA, unlike a formal charge or conviction for certain offenses, or violations of firm policy like undisclosed outside business activities. Personal political donations, unless tied to 'pay-to-play' rules or firm funds, are generally not reportable.
Question 18: What is the primary market?
- Where foreign securities are listed
- Where investors trade securities among themselves
- The largest stock exchange by volume
- Where newly issued securities are sold for the first time (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Where newly issued securities are sold for the first time
The primary market is where new securities are first issued and sold, with proceeds going to the issuing company.
Question 19: Which of the following best describes the role of the Options Clearing Corporation (OCC)?
- It handles customer complaints about options transactions
- It acts as guarantor and central counterparty for listed options trades (Correct answer)
- It registers new options products with the SEC
- It sets margin requirements for stock purchases
Correct answer: It acts as guarantor and central counterparty for listed options trades
The OCC acts as the central counterparty and guarantor for all exchange-listed options contracts, ensuring performance of obligations.
Question 20: Under Regulation T, the Federal Reserve Board sets the initial margin requirement for purchasing equity securities at:
- 75%
- 50% (Correct answer)
- 100%
- 25%
Correct answer: 50%
Regulation T requires investors to deposit at least 50% of the purchase price of marginable securities at the time of purchase.
Question 21: A mutual fund that trades on an exchange throughout the day like a stock is called a(n):
- Exchange-traded fund (ETF) (Correct answer)
- Closed-end fund
- Open-end fund
- Unit investment trust
Correct answer: Exchange-traded fund (ETF)
ETFs are investment funds that trade on stock exchanges throughout the trading day, unlike mutual funds which are priced once daily at NAV.
Question 22: Which regulatory body oversees the operations of US stock exchanges and broker-dealers?
- SEC (Securities and Exchange Commission) (Correct answer)
- OCC (Office of the Comptroller of the Currency)
- Federal Reserve
- FDIC
Correct answer: SEC (Securities and Exchange Commission)
The SEC is the primary federal regulator of US securities markets, overseeing exchanges, broker-dealers, and investment advisers.
Question 23: What does Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measure?
- The total amount of government debt outstanding
- The total market value of all goods and services produced in a country during a specific period (Correct answer)
- The average income of all citizens in a country
- The rate at which consumer prices are rising
Correct answer: The total market value of all goods and services produced in a country during a specific period
GDP measures the total market value of all finished goods and services produced within a country's borders during a specific time period.
Question 24: An Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF) differs from a mutual fund primarily because:
- ETFs are only available to institutional investors
- ETFs cannot hold stocks
- ETFs actively manage their portfolios
- ETFs trade on exchanges throughout the day like stocks (Correct answer)
Correct answer: ETFs trade on exchanges throughout the day like stocks
ETFs trade on exchanges continuously throughout the trading day at market prices, unlike mutual funds priced once at end of day.
Question 25: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of common stock?
- Residual claim on assets
- Voting rights
- Guaranteed dividend payments (Correct answer)
- Limited liability
Correct answer: Guaranteed dividend payments
Common stockholders are not guaranteed dividends; dividends are paid at the discretion of the board of directors.
Question 26: What is payment for order flow (PFOF)?
- Compensation paid to broker-dealers by market makers for routing customer orders to them (Correct answer)
- Fees paid by exchanges to attract listing companies
- Commissions paid by customers for trade execution
- Charges for late settlement of securities
Correct answer: Compensation paid to broker-dealers by market makers for routing customer orders to them
PFOF is a practice where market makers compensate broker-dealers for routing customer orders to them for execution.
Question 27: Which document must be completed before a new brokerage account is opened?
- SIPC membership form
- New Account Form (customer profile) (Correct answer)
- Regulation T margin agreement
- Options Disclosure Document
Correct answer: New Account Form (customer profile)
A new account form collecting the customer's financial information, investment objectives, and risk tolerance must be completed before trading.
Question 28: A discretionary account allows a broker to:
- Trade customer funds without prior approval for each transaction (Correct answer)
- Charge higher commissions than standard accounts
- Open accounts for minors without custodian approval
- Bypass suitability requirements
Correct answer: Trade customer funds without prior approval for each transaction
Discretionary accounts grant the broker written authority to make trades without contacting the customer for each decision.
Question 29: A put option gives the holder the right to:
- Force a stock split
- Buy shares at the strike price
- Receive interest on the underlying bond
- Sell shares at the strike price (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Sell shares at the strike price
A put option grants the holder the right to sell the underlying security at the strike price before expiration.
Question 30: A corporation issues new shares directly to existing shareholders in proportion to their current holdings through a:
- Private placement
- Stock split
- Secondary offering
- Rights offering (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Rights offering
A rights offering gives existing shareholders the right to purchase additional shares at a set price, usually below market, proportional to their current holdings.
Question 31: Which of the following is a characteristic of preferred stock compared to common stock?
- Greater liquidation risk
- Greater voting rights
- Higher potential capital appreciation
- Priority dividend payments (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Priority dividend payments
Preferred stockholders receive dividends before common stockholders and have priority over common stockholders in liquidation.
Question 32: Under FINRA's Best Execution rule, broker-dealers must:
- Match any competitor's price
- Execute large orders before small ones
- Seek the most favorable terms reasonably available for customer orders (Correct answer)
- Execute all trades on the NYSE
Correct answer: Seek the most favorable terms reasonably available for customer orders
Best execution requires broker-dealers to use reasonable diligence to find the most favorable terms for customer order execution.
Question 33: The National Best Bid and Offer (NBBO) rule requires broker-dealers to:
- Charge a minimum commission on all trades
- Execute all trades through the NYSE
- Route orders to the largest market maker
- Execute customer orders at the best available prices across all exchanges (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Execute customer orders at the best available prices across all exchanges
The NBBO rule requires broker-dealers to execute customer orders at the best available bid or offer price across all trading venues.
Question 34: What is the intrinsic value of a call option with a $50 strike price when the stock is trading at $55?
- $50
- $55
- $0
- $5 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: $5
Intrinsic value for a call equals stock price minus strike price when in the money: $55 - $50 = $5.
Question 35: What is a warrant in the context of securities?
- A court order to freeze assets
- A type of bond coupon
- A long-term option to buy shares at a fixed price (Correct answer)
- A guarantee of dividend payment
Correct answer: A long-term option to buy shares at a fixed price
A warrant is a long-term security giving the holder the right to purchase shares at a set price before expiration.
Question 36: A tenants in common (TIC) account differs from JTWROS in that:
- TIC accounts cannot be held by more than two people
- Each TIC owner's share passes to their estate upon death, not to co-owners (Correct answer)
- TIC accounts are only for retirement assets
- TIC owners must hold equal shares
Correct answer: Each TIC owner's share passes to their estate upon death, not to co-owners
In a TIC account, each owner's interest passes to their heirs through their estate, unlike JTWROS where it passes automatically to survivors.
Question 37: An Initial Public Offering (IPO) occurs when a company:
- Declares its first dividend
- Issues bonds to the public for the first time
- Buys back shares from the public
- Lists its shares on a stock exchange for the first time (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Lists its shares on a stock exchange for the first time
An IPO is when a private company first offers its shares to the public on a stock exchange.
Question 38: Which of the following is considered a leading economic indicator?
- Outstanding commercial loans
- Average duration of unemployment
- Prime interest rate
- Building permits issued (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Building permits issued
Building permits are a leading indicator because they signal future construction activity and economic expansion before it occurs.
Question 39: Which of the following is the Federal Reserve's primary tool for implementing monetary policy?
- Adjusting the federal funds rate (Correct answer)
- Setting federal income tax rates
- Imposing import tariffs on foreign goods
- Controlling government spending levels
Correct answer: Adjusting the federal funds rate
The Federal Reserve primarily uses the federal funds rate — the rate at which banks lend to each other overnight — as its main tool to influence monetary conditions.
Question 40: FINRA's Rule 3220 was created primarily to:
- control rival corporations' securities exchanges.
- control company expenditures.
- forbid presents and gratuities from one business to another. (Correct answer)
- forbid non-monetary remuneration.
Correct answer: forbid presents and gratuities from one business to another.
FINRA Rule 3220, also known as the Gifts and Gratuities Rule, was established to prevent undue influence and maintain fair business practices within the securities industry. It primarily forbids member firms or their associated persons from giving gifts or gratuities exceeding $100 per year to employees of other firms if the gift is related to the business of the recipient's employer. This rule aims to ensure that business decisions are made objectively, free from the sway of excessive gifts.
Question 41: Which US Treasury security has a maturity of more than 10 years?
- Treasury bill
- Treasury STRIP
- Treasury bond (Correct answer)
- Treasury note
Correct answer: Treasury bond
Treasury bonds have maturities of 20 to 30 years, making them the longest-duration US government securities.
Question 42: SIPC (Securities Investor Protection Corporation) protects investors against:
- Fraud committed by the issuer of securities
- Market losses from bad investments
- Broker-dealer insolvency and missing customer assets (Correct answer)
- Losses on options strategies
Correct answer: Broker-dealer insolvency and missing customer assets
SIPC covers up to $500,000 (including $250,000 in cash) per customer if a member broker-dealer becomes insolvent.
Question 43: The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is primarily used to measure:
- Changes in the price level of a basket of consumer goods and services over time (Correct answer)
- The interest rate that the Federal Reserve charges member banks
- The total value of goods and services exported by a country
- The total output of the manufacturing sector
Correct answer: Changes in the price level of a basket of consumer goods and services over time
The CPI tracks changes in the prices paid by urban consumers for a representative basket of goods and services, making it the primary measure of consumer inflation.
Question 44: What is a power of attorney (POA) in a brokerage account context?
- A permission form for options trading
- A document allowing a minor to trade independently
- A court order to freeze an account
- A written authorization for a third party to act on the account owner's behalf (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A written authorization for a third party to act on the account owner's behalf
A power of attorney authorizes a designated person to make investment decisions and transactions for another person's account.
Question 45: A stop order (stop-loss order) becomes a market order when:
- The security's price reaches the limit price
- Volume exceeds the order size
- The security's price reaches or passes the stop price (Correct answer)
- The order is not filled within one trading day
Correct answer: The security's price reaches or passes the stop price
A stop order is triggered and becomes a market order when the security's price reaches the designated stop price.
Question 46: JCB Company owns 5000 shares of issued stock in addition to 1000 shares of treasury stock. The right amount of common stock is represented by which of the following?
- 5000
- 1000
- 6000
- 4000 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 4000
The amount of common stock outstanding refers to the shares currently held by investors, which are the shares that have been issued minus any shares the company has repurchased and holds as treasury stock. In this scenario, JCB Company has 5,000 shares of issued stock and 1,000 shares of treasury stock. Therefore, the number of outstanding common shares is 5,000 - 1,000 = 4,000 shares.
Question 47: What risk do bond investors face when interest rates fall and they must reinvest coupon payments at lower rates?
- Reinvestment risk (Correct answer)
- Inflation risk
- Credit risk
- Liquidity risk
Correct answer: Reinvestment risk
Reinvestment risk is the risk that future coupon payments will be reinvested at lower interest rates than originally expected.
Question 48: Which type of investment company continuously offers shares and redeems them at NAV?
- Unit investment trust
- Open-end management company (mutual fund) (Correct answer)
- Closed-end fund
- Business development company
Correct answer: Open-end management company (mutual fund)
Open-end management companies (mutual funds) issue new shares and redeem existing shares at NAV on any business day.
Question 49: What is the name of a stock order that won't be filled unless a stock hits or drops below a specific market price?
- Put an end to the order
- Limitation of order (Correct answer)
- Order of market
- Order cancellation
Correct answer: Limitation of order
A limit order is a type of stock order that specifies a maximum price an investor is willing to pay to buy a security or a minimum price they are willing to accept to sell a security. This means the order will only be filled if the stock reaches or drops below the specified buy limit price, or reaches or rises above the specified sell limit price. It provides price control but does not guarantee execution.
Question 50: Open market operations conducted by the Federal Reserve refer to:
- Issuing new U.S. Treasury bonds to fund the federal deficit
- The Fed's purchase or sale of U.S. government securities to influence the money supply (Correct answer)
- Setting margin requirements for securities purchases
- Regulating the hours that stock exchanges are open
Correct answer: The Fed's purchase or sale of U.S. government securities to influence the money supply
Open market operations involve the Federal Reserve buying or selling U.S. government securities to expand or contract the money supply and influence interest rates.
Question 51: Which options strategy profits when the underlying stock remains relatively flat?
- Long put
- Short straddle (Correct answer)
- Long call
- Long straddle
Correct answer: Short straddle
A short straddle (selling both a call and a put at the same strike) profits from low volatility when the stock stays near the strike price.
Question 52: A 529 plan is primarily used to save for:
- Healthcare costs
- First-time home purchases
- Retirement income
- Education expenses with tax-advantaged growth (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Education expenses with tax-advantaged growth
529 plans are state-sponsored education savings accounts where contributions grow tax-free and withdrawals for qualified education expenses are tax-free.
Question 53: Interest rate risk most directly and significantly affects which type of investment?
- Long-term fixed-rate bonds (Correct answer)
- Short-term commercial real estate leases
- Common equity shares of growth companies
- Commodity futures contracts
Correct answer: Long-term fixed-rate bonds
Long-term fixed-rate bonds are most sensitive to interest rate changes because their fixed payments are locked in for many years, making price swings larger when rates move.
Question 54: A firm commitment underwriting arrangement means the underwriter:
- Guarantees the sale price to retail investors
- Purchases all unsold shares from the issuer (Correct answer)
- Shares profits equally with the issuer
- Sells shares only on a best-efforts basis
Correct answer: Purchases all unsold shares from the issuer
In a firm commitment underwriting, the underwriter buys all securities from the issuer and assumes the risk of selling them to the public.
Question 55: What is the 'suitability' obligation under FINRA rules?
- Recommendations must be appropriate based on the customer's financial profile and objectives (Correct answer)
- Brokers must guarantee a minimum return on recommendations
- Firms must offer the lowest-cost products available
- All customers must be offered the same investment options
Correct answer: Recommendations must be appropriate based on the customer's financial profile and objectives
FINRA's suitability rule requires that investment recommendations be appropriate for the specific customer based on their financial situation and goals.
Question 56: A joint tenancy with right of survivorship (JTWROS) account means:
- Owners can designate different beneficiaries for their share
- The account is subject to probate upon any owner's death
- Each owner can only access their proportional share
- Upon one owner's death, their share passes to the surviving owner(s) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Upon one owner's death, their share passes to the surviving owner(s)
In a JTWROS account, when one owner dies, ownership automatically passes to the surviving account holder(s) outside of probate.
Question 57: A pattern day trader is defined as someone who executes how many or more day trades within five business days?
- 3
- 4 (Correct answer)
- 5
- 2
Correct answer: 4
FINRA Rule 4210 defines a pattern day trader as any customer who executes four or more day trades in five business days in a margin account.
Question 58: Which self-regulatory organization (SRO) has primary responsibility for overseeing broker-dealers in the United States?
- SIPC
- FINRA (Correct answer)
- MSRB
- CFTC
Correct answer: FINRA
FINRA (Financial Industry Regulatory Authority) is the primary SRO responsible for regulating broker-dealers under SEC oversight.
Question 59: What information is required on a new account form under FINRA rules?
- References from two existing brokerage clients
- Customer's name, address, tax ID, investment objectives, financial situation, and risk tolerance (Correct answer)
- Only financial information verified by an accountant
- Only the customer's name and tax ID
Correct answer: Customer's name, address, tax ID, investment objectives, financial situation, and risk tolerance
FINRA requires firms to collect comprehensive customer information including personal details, financial profile, and investment objectives for suitability purposes.
Question 60: Credit risk in the context of fixed income investing is best described as:
- The risk that rising interest rates will lower the market price of a bond
- The risk that a bond cannot be sold quickly in the secondary market
- The risk that inflation will reduce the purchasing power of bond payments
- The risk that an issuer will fail to make scheduled principal or interest payments (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The risk that an issuer will fail to make scheduled principal or interest payments
Credit risk (also called default risk) is the possibility that a bond issuer will be unable or unwilling to make the promised interest and principal payments.
Question 61: The Securities Act of 1933 primarily regulates:
- Commodity futures trading
- Secondary market trading and exchanges
- The issuance of new securities in the primary market (Correct answer)
- Investment adviser conduct
Correct answer: The issuance of new securities in the primary market
The Securities Act of 1933 focuses on new securities offerings, requiring registration and disclosure of material information.
Question 62: A tombstone advertisement for a new securities offering is permitted during the waiting period because it:
- Contains a full prospectus
- Is filed separately with FINRA
- Solicits orders from investors
- Is limited to basic factual information and directs investors to the prospectus (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Is limited to basic factual information and directs investors to the prospectus
Tombstone ads are permitted during the cooling-off period because they only provide limited factual information and direct readers to obtain a prospectus.
Question 63: Under the Bank Secrecy Act, broker-dealers must file a Currency Transaction Report (CTR) when a customer conducts a cash transaction exceeding:
- $50,000
- $25,000
- $5,000
- $10,000 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: $10,000
The Bank Secrecy Act requires a CTR for any cash transaction exceeding $10,000, and structuring transactions to avoid this threshold is illegal.
Question 64: An organization makes $100,000 a year, but it also spends $75,000. The corporation has 10,000 issued shares and owes $7,000 to preferred shareholders. Regarding the value of each share, which of the following assertions is true?
- 10% of the company's stock is owned by investors, whose shares are worth at least $5,000.
- To enhance the value of the stock held by shareholders, the corporation ought to issue an additional 10,000 shares.
- Each share will be worth $2.20.
- The par value of non-preferred stockholders' shares will be $1.80. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The par value of non-preferred stockholders' shares will be $1.80.
To determine the value available to non-preferred (common) shareholders, first calculate the company's net income by subtracting expenses from revenue: $100,000 - $75,000 = $25,000. Next, subtract the preferred dividends from the net income, as preferred shareholders are paid first: $25,000 - $7,000 = $18,000. Finally, divide this amount by the number of issued common shares (10,000) to find the earnings per common share, which is $18,000 / 10,000 = $1.80.
Question 65: The following are some of the main reasons why investors engage in passive ETF investing:
- make quick profits on large purchases of shares made at a discount to the S&P Index.
- make quick profits by trading aggressively and then holding onto stocks for a while till their value rises and then trading them.
- have longer-term gains and save more money than you would from alternative trading methods' higher fees. (Correct answer)
- have greater returns over an extended period of time, notwithstanding additional costs associated with alternative trading methods.
Correct answer: have longer-term gains and save more money than you would from alternative trading methods' higher fees.
Investors engage in passive ETF investing primarily to achieve longer-term gains by tracking a market index rather than actively trying to outperform it. This strategy typically involves lower trading activity and, consequently, lower management fees compared to actively managed funds or frequent trading methods. The goal is to benefit from market growth over time while minimizing costs, which often leads to better net returns in the long run.
Question 66: Which of the following entities protects customers of FINRA member broker-dealers if the firm fails?
- FDIC
- SIPC (Correct answer)
- SEC
- MSRB
Correct answer: SIPC
SIPC (Securities Investor Protection Corporation) protects customers of failed broker-dealers by covering up to $500,000 in securities and cash.
Question 67: What is the coupon rate of a bond?
- The bond's yield to maturity
- The bond's current yield in the market
- The annual interest rate stated on the bond at issuance (Correct answer)
- The discount rate used to price the bond
Correct answer: The annual interest rate stated on the bond at issuance
The coupon rate is the annual interest rate fixed at issuance, determining the periodic interest payments.
Question 68: What is the term for a corporate action that increases the number of outstanding shares while reducing the price per share proportionally?
- Forward stock split (Correct answer)
- Rights offering
- Reverse stock split
- Stock dividend
Correct answer: Forward stock split
A forward stock split increases share count and lowers the price per share, keeping total market value the same.
Question 69: Under the Bank Secrecy Act, currency transaction reports (CTRs) must be filed for cash transactions exceeding:
- $10,000 (Correct answer)
- $25,000
- $1,000
- $5,000
Correct answer: $10,000
Financial institutions must file a CTR for any single cash transaction or series of related transactions exceeding $10,000.
Question 70: What does it mean to write (sell) a covered call?
- Selling a call with no existing stock position
- Selling a call option while owning the underlying shares (Correct answer)
- Buying a call as protection against a short stock position
- Writing an option on an index rather than individual stock
Correct answer: Selling a call option while owning the underlying shares
A covered call involves selling a call option while owning the underlying shares, providing income in exchange for capping upside.
Question 71: Dark pools are best described as:
- After-hours trading systems
- Exchanges that specialize in penny stocks
- Derivatives trading platforms
- Private trading venues that do not display quotes publicly (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Private trading venues that do not display quotes publicly
Dark pools are private trading venues where large orders can be executed without showing quotes to the public market.
Question 72: According to FINRA regulations, a private securities transaction is one in which:
- For the account of a customer, an agent trades.
- An agent transacts on their own behalf.
- Outside of their regular work hours, an agent transacts in securities on behalf of their member firm. (Correct answer)
- A private placement investment is made by any employee of the company, as specified by Regulation D of the Securities Act of 1933.
Correct answer: Outside of their regular work hours, an agent transacts in securities on behalf of their member firm.
A private securities transaction, often referred to as 'selling away,' occurs when an associated person engages in a securities transaction outside the regular course or scope of their employment with their member firm. This activity requires the firm's written permission and supervision, especially if the associated person receives compensation. While the phrasing 'on behalf of their member firm' in option B is slightly contradictory to the 'private' nature, the core element of transacting 'outside of their regular work hours' points to activity not under the firm's direct oversight, which is the defining characteristic of such a transaction.
Question 73: A margin call is issued when:
- A stock in the account pays a dividend
- The equity in a margin account falls below the maintenance margin requirement (Correct answer)
- A customer exceeds the maximum position size
- A broker wants to promote additional trading
Correct answer: The equity in a margin account falls below the maintenance margin requirement
A maintenance margin call requires the customer to deposit additional funds when account equity drops below the maintenance requirement.
Question 74: Net Asset Value (NAV) per share is calculated as:
- (Total assets minus total liabilities) divided by shares outstanding (Correct answer)
- Total assets divided by total shares outstanding
- Total liabilities divided by shares outstanding
- Market price minus book value per share
Correct answer: (Total assets minus total liabilities) divided by shares outstanding
NAV per share equals the fund's total assets minus its liabilities, divided by the number of outstanding shares.
Question 75: The general relationship between risk and expected return in investments holds that:
- Higher-risk investments tend to offer lower potential returns to compensate investors
- Lower-risk investments always deliver the best long-term returns
- Risk and expected return have no meaningful relationship
- Higher-risk investments must offer higher potential returns to attract investors (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Higher-risk investments must offer higher potential returns to attract investors
Investors demand higher potential returns as compensation for accepting greater risk; without this risk premium, rational investors would choose safer alternatives.
Question 76: An all-or-none (AON) order instructs the broker to:
- Accept any price for the entire order
- Fill the order immediately or cancel it
- Execute the order only at the opening price
- Execute the entire order at once or not at all (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Execute the entire order at once or not at all
An AON order must be filled in its entirety at the specified price; partial fills are not accepted.
Question 77: What is a 12b-1 fee?
- A redemption fee charged when selling fund shares
- A penalty for early withdrawal from an annuity
- A transaction fee for buying ETF shares
- An annual fee charged by mutual funds to cover marketing and distribution costs (Correct answer)
Correct answer: An annual fee charged by mutual funds to cover marketing and distribution costs
A 12b-1 fee is an annual fund expense used for marketing and distribution, included in the fund's expense ratio.
Question 78: A letter of intent (LOI) in mutual fund investing allows a shareholder to:
- Redeem shares before the surrender period
- Switch between fund families without sales loads
- Defer capital gains taxes on fund distributions
- Qualify for a breakpoint discount over a 13-month investment period (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Qualify for a breakpoint discount over a 13-month investment period
An LOI allows investors to commit to reaching a breakpoint investment level over 13 months to receive the reduced sales load upfront.
Question 79: Which agency's bonds carry an implicit (not explicit) government guarantee?
- FDIC
- US Treasury
- Federal Reserve
- Fannie Mae (FNMA) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Fannie Mae (FNMA)
Government-sponsored enterprises (GSEs) like Fannie Mae carry an implied but not legally guaranteed government backing.
Question 80: Callable preferred stock allows the issuer to:
- Convert shares into bonds
- Suspend dividends indefinitely
- Redeem the shares at a specified price (Correct answer)
- Force conversion into common stock at any time
Correct answer: Redeem the shares at a specified price
Callable preferred stock can be redeemed (bought back) by the issuer at a predetermined call price.
Question 81: Which of the following is considered an equity security?
- Corporate bond
- Mortgage-backed security
- Treasury note
- Common stock (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Common stock
Common stock represents ownership (equity) in a corporation, making it an equity security as opposed to a debt security.
Question 82: A churning violation occurs when a broker:
- Delays execution of customer orders
- Recommends the same security to multiple customers
- Excessively trades a customer's account primarily to generate commissions (Correct answer)
- Trades securities at a loss to generate tax benefits
Correct answer: Excessively trades a customer's account primarily to generate commissions
Churning is the unethical practice of excessive trading in a customer's account primarily to generate commissions for the broker.
Question 83: Which regulatory body has jurisdiction over variable annuities and variable life insurance products?
- The Federal Reserve
- State insurance regulators only
- FINRA only
- Both the SEC and FINRA, as well as state insurance regulators (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Both the SEC and FINRA, as well as state insurance regulators
Variable products are considered both securities and insurance, so they fall under SEC/FINRA jurisdiction as well as state insurance regulation.
Question 84: The bid price in a security quote represents:
- The last traded price of the security
- The average of buy and sell prices
- The price at which a dealer will buy the security (Correct answer)
- The price at which a dealer will sell the security
Correct answer: The price at which a dealer will buy the security
The bid price is the highest price a buyer (dealer) is willing to pay to purchase the security from an investor.
Question 85: The Options Disclosure Document (ODD) titled 'Characteristics and Risks of Standardized Options' must be provided to customers:
- Only after the first options trade is executed
- Annually thereafter
- Before or at the time of opening an options account (Correct answer)
- Only when the customer requests it
Correct answer: Before or at the time of opening an options account
FINRA rules require the ODD be provided to customers before or at the time they open an options trading account.
Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Exam
The FINRA Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) exam assesses basic knowledge of the securities industry, including types of products and their risks, the structure of the securities industry markets, and regulatory agencies and their functions. It is a corequisite for most FINRA representative-level qualification exams.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds