SIA CP Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield SIA CP facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What are the signs of a stroke? Which acronym helps you remember them? → FAST — Face, Arms, Speech, Time
2. What are the five UK terrorism threat levels, from lowest to highest? → Low, Moderate, Substantial, Severe, Critical
3. In a two-vehicle CP motorcade, where should the principal typically be seated? → In the rear of the principal vehicle, behind the driver
4. Why is it important for the close protection team to liaise with the venue's own security staff? → To share intelligence, coordinate plans, and ensure a unified security approach
5. What does 'burn' mean in surveillance terminology? → When a surveillance operative is identified by the target
6. Under which Act must all close protection operatives in the UK be licensed? → Private Security Industry Act 2001
7. What does 'stay off the net' mean in radio communications? → Do not transmit on the radio channel as it is in use for an important communication
8. When conducting a pre-drive vehicle check, what should a close protection operative inspect as a priority? → The underside of the vehicle for suspicious devices
9. What does 'STOP' mean when transmitted on a CP radio network? → An instruction to all team members to immediately halt all movement
10. What does 'CASEVAC' stand for in a tactical CP context? → Casualty evacuation — the process of transporting a casualty to medical care
11. What does 'en route security' mean in close protection? → Security measures and procedures applied during the journey between locations
12. What is the primary purpose of a radio communication system in close protection? → To maintain secure, real-time communication between team members during operations
13. What is a 'principal' in close protection terminology? → The person being protected
14. Which document provides the legal authority for a CPO to carry out close protection work in the UK? → SIA Close Protection licence
15. What obligation does a CPO have if they witness a colleague commit an assault during a protection operation? → Report it to management and police; failing to report could make them an accessory
16. What is a 'safe room' in venue security? → A pre-identified, secure room where the principal can be taken if a threat materialises
17. What is the purpose of 'drills' in close protection training? → To rehearse responses to specific threats until they become automatic under stress
18. What is the purpose of using multiple cover stops on a surveillance detection route? → To provide the CP team with opportunities to observe whether anyone follows between stops
19. Which of the following best describes 'vehicle hardening' in close protection? → Modifying or armoring a vehicle to withstand ballistic or blast threats
20. What is a 'threat matrix' used for in CP planning? → A tool for ranking threats by likelihood and impact to prioritise resources
21. Why are 'transition points' in the principal's movement particularly vulnerable to attack? → They are predictable, involve brief exposure and require movement between protected zones
22. What is 'protective intelligence' in a close protection context? → Information gathered and analysed to predict and prevent threats to the principal
23. What is a 'sterile area' in venue security? → An area that has been searched, cleared, and secured before the principal's arrival
24. What is the NATO phonetic alphabet word for the letter 'C'? → Charlie
25. What communication method serves as backup if primary radio fails? → Pre-agreed mobile phone numbers, signal codes or alternative radio frequencies
26. Under GDPR, how long may a CP team retain personal data gathered during a protection operation? → Only as long as necessary for the original purpose and no longer
27. What is 'contractual liability' in a CP context? → Liability arising from a breach of the terms of the CP service agreement
28. In threat assessment, what does the acronym 'JTAC' stand for in the UK context? → Joint Terrorism Analysis Centre
29. What is the primary purpose of a threat assessment in close protection? → To identify, analyse and evaluate potential threats to the principal
30. Under the Terrorism Act 2000, what must a CPO do if they have reasonable suspicion their principal is involved in terrorism? → Report it to the police; failure to disclose is an offence under Section 19