SHS Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield SHS facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Under 29 CFR 1910.134, employees required to wear a tight-fitting respirator must pass which evaluation before initial use? → Medical evaluation and fit test
2. Which section of the OSH Act gives employees the right to request an OSHA inspection without fear of retaliation from their employer? → Section 8 — Inspections and Investigations
3. Under OSHA's recordkeeping rule, which of the following is classified as a 'restricted work case' requiring entry on the OSHA 300 Log? → An employee is assigned to a modified duty position limiting normal job functions
4. Which disinfectant classification, as defined by Spaulding's classification system, is required for semi-critical medical devices that contact mucous membranes? → High-level disinfection
5. What does the acronym 'CTD' stand for in occupational health? → Cumulative Trauma Disorder
6. When packaging a traumatic amputation for transport with the severed part, which method is correct? → Wrap in dry sterile gauze, seal in a plastic bag, and place on ice
7. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) intersects with occupational safety when: → An employer uses safety requirements as a pretext to exclude qualified disabled workers
8. What is the purpose of a hazard assessment in the workplace? → To identify and address potential safety risks.
9. Under OSHA's Walking-Working Surfaces standard (29 CFR 1910 Subpart D), the minimum load rating for a standard floor opening cover is: → Two times the combined weight of any workers and equipment that may traverse it
10. Ergonomic hazard controls are BEST applied at which stage of the hierarchy of controls? → As early as the engineering design phase
11. What should be done if an error is discovered in existing records? → Draw a single line through the error, note the correction, date, and initial
12. Which assessment tool is most commonly used to evaluate a patient's functional status? → Standardized functional capacity scales
13. What are the benefits of an effective safety and health program? → Fewer accidents and better overall performance.
14. An employer receives an OSHA citation with a 'Willful' violation classification. What does this indicate? → The employer intentionally disregarded OSHA requirements or showed plain indifference
15. During an industrial fire exposure assessment, understanding that hemoglobin's oxygen-dissociation curve shifts RIGHT at higher temperatures means: → Hemoglobin releases oxygen more readily to tissues under heat stress
16. How does maintaining proper credentials demonstrate regulatory compliance? → It proves the practitioner has met all requirements for legal practice
17. The concept of 'value on investment' (VOI) in wellness programs expands beyond financial ROI to include: → Broader outcomes such as employee engagement, morale, and organizational culture
18. An N95 filtering facepiece respirator provides what minimum filtration efficiency against airborne particles? → 95%
19. Which CDC transmission-based precaution category requires placement of the patient in a negative-pressure airborne infection isolation room (AIIR)? → Airborne precautions
20. Under OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR 1910.1200), how many sections must a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) contain? → 16
21. For treatment of a closed (simple) fracture of the forearm, what is the priority after immobilization? → Assess and document circulation, sensation, and movement (CSM) distal to the fracture
22. When must employers post the OSHA 300A Annual Summary in the workplace? → February 1 through April 30
23. When faced with a conflict of interest, what is the appropriate course of action? → Disclose the conflict and recuse yourself from the situation
24. What is the first step before implementing any treatment procedure? → Verify patient identity and obtain informed consent
25. Which class of fire extinguisher is required where flammable liquids such as hydraulic fluids are present? → Class B
26. Which control measure is classified as an administrative control? → Implementing a job rotation schedule to limit repetitive motion
27. Which chemical sterilization method is commonly used for heat-sensitive medical devices and operates at low temperatures with a highly penetrating agent? → Ethylene oxide (EtO) gas sterilization
28. Why is continuing education important for maintaining ethical practice? → It ensures practitioners stay current with evolving standards and best practices
29. Heavy metal exposure, such as lead, most commonly damages which part of the nephron? → Proximal tubule
30. What is the primary purpose of maintaining a clean field during procedures? → To minimize the risk of introducing pathogens to the treatment area