SGNA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield SGNA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Glucagon is sometimes administered during upper GI endoscopy for which purpose? → Relax smooth muscle to reduce spasm and improve visualization
2. Which scoring tool is commonly used to assess a patient's readiness for discharge after sedation? → Modified Aldrete Score
3. Esophageal varices most commonly develop in which location of the esophagus? → Lower third of the esophagus
4. Dicyclomine (Bentyl) is an antispasmodic used in GI patients. What is its drug class? → Anticholinergic (antimuscarinic)
5. Cancer of the colon and rectum is primarily which of the following types of cancer? → Adenocarcinoma
6. Meissner's (submucosal) plexus primarily regulates which GI function? → Secretion and local blood flow
7. Which class of medications is contraindicated in patients with active GI bleeding due to increased bleeding risk? → Anticoagulants and antiplatelet agents (e.g., warfarin, aspirin)
8. Intrinsic factor, essential for vitamin B12 absorption, is produced in which GI location? → Gastric parietal cells
9. What safety precaution is essential when working with glutaraldehyde-based high-level disinfectants? → Use in a well-ventilated area with appropriate respiratory protection
10. What is the function of the endoscope's deflection controls (up/down and left/right)? → Angulate the distal tip to navigate GI tract curves and improve visualization
11. A patient receiving moderate sedation develops respiratory depression. What is the nurse's FIRST priority action? → Stimulate the patient and provide supplemental oxygen
12. What is the function of the biopsy channel in a flexible endoscope? → Allows passage of accessories (forceps, snares, needles) and specimen retrieval
13. Metoclopramide is primarily used in GI patients for which indication? → Gastroparesis and nausea
14. Ischemic colitis most commonly affects which colonic regions due to their watershed blood supply? → Splenic flexure and sigmoid colon
15. What is the proper technique for removing contaminated gloves to prevent self-contamination? → Peel off inside-out using clean technique
16. A patient taking metoclopramide has been prescribed haloperidol. For which of the following does this drug combination put the patient at increased risk? → Tardive dyskinesia
17. Which ASA physical status classification describes a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life? → ASA IV
18. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism underlying gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? → Transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxations (TLESRs)
19. Which of the following dairy products is MOST LIKELY to contain the least lactose for those who are lactose intolerant? → Greek-style whole-fat yogurt
20. What does the abbreviation 'NPO' indicate in pre-procedure orders? → Nothing by mouth (nil per os)
21. Argon plasma coagulation (APC) achieves hemostasis by which mechanism? → Conducting ionized argon gas to deliver non-contact electrocoagulation to tissue
22. What is the primary function of the small intestine's villi and microvilli? → Increase surface area for nutrient absorption
23. What is an endoscopic mucosal resection (EMR)? → Resection of superficial mucosal lesions using injection and snare technique
24. Hepatitis B virus is primarily transmitted through which routes? → Parenteral exposure, sexual contact, and perinatal transmission
25. How should flexible endoscopes be stored after reprocessing and drying? → Hanging vertically in a ventilated cabinet
26. Before using electrosurgical equipment during endoscopy, the nurse should verify: → Proper grounding pad placement and confirmed absence of implanted cardiac devices
27. What action should be taken immediately after an endoscope is used at the point of care (bedside)? → Wipe external surfaces and flush channels with enzymatic detergent
28. When documenting an endoscopy procedure, which finding must always be recorded in the procedure note? → Quality indicators including cecal intubation and withdrawal time
29. Which segment of the colon has the highest risk of diverticulosis formation in Western populations? → Sigmoid colon
30. Simethicone is administered before upper endoscopy for which reason? → Reduce gas bubbles to improve mucosal visualization