Series 66 – Uniform Combined State Law Exam Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Series 66 – Uniform Combined State Law Exam facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which of the following best describes a 'stop order' that a state Administrator may issue regarding a security's registration? → An order suspending or revoking the effectiveness of a registration statement
2. During a cold call, a prospect asks to be placed on the firm's do-not-call list. What must the firm do? → Honor the request and stop calling that number
3. Which describes an arbitration award in a FINRA proceeding? → It is generally final and binding with no right to appeal on the merits
4. Which of the following is an exempt security under the Uniform Securities Act? → Commercial paper maturing in 270 days or less
5. An investor loses money and wants to rescind a purchase under the Uniform Securities Act. What must the investor generally tender? → The security
6. A pre-dispute arbitration clause may NOT do which of the following? → Limit the customer's ability to file a claim in court that the rules allow
7. Which situation allows an adviser to disclose client information without client consent? → Responding to a valid subpoena or regulatory examination
8. In Series 66 - Uniform Combined State Law, what is the MOST effective approach to client communication & advocacy? → Active listening combined with clear, empathetic communication
9. Which factor BEST indicates mastery of dispute resolution & mediation in Series 66 - Uniform Combined State Law? → The ability to adapt knowledge and skills to varying contexts while maintaining standards
10. What role does documentation play in client communication & advocacy within Series 66 - Uniform Combined State Law? → It ensures continuity, accountability, and serves as a reference for all parties
11. Which of the following is an unethical business practice for an agent? → Guaranteeing a customer against loss in an account
12. An investment adviser with $150 million of assets under management is registered with the SEC. What may a state generally require of this adviser? → A notice filing and payment of fees
13. A customer closes an account. How long must the broker-dealer keep the account record? → Six years after the account is closed
14. What is the PRIMARY objective of dispute resolution & mediation within the Series 66 - Uniform Combined State Law profession? → To ensure quality outcomes through standardized practices and continuous improvement
15. An issuer sells securities under Rule 506 of Regulation D. Within how many days of the first sale must Form D be filed with the SEC? → 15 days
16. If a person refuses to comply with an Administrator's subpoena, the Administrator may: → Apply to a court to compel compliance
17. A client purchases shares in a real estate limited partnership. Under the Howey Test, this investment would most likely be considered a security because: → Investors rely on the efforts of the general partner to generate profits
18. Which action BEST demonstrates a commitment to administrative law & procedures in Series 66 - Uniform Combined State Law? → Maintaining current knowledge of all applicable regulations and standards
19. In Series 66 - Uniform Combined State Law, which factor MOST influences the selection of appropriate civil & criminal procedures? → The specific requirements and constraints of the situation
20. Does filing a petition for judicial review of an Administrator's order automatically stay the order? → No, unless the court specifically orders a stay
21. What is the MOST important consideration when applying courtroom procedures & protocols in Series 66 - Uniform Combined State Law? → Following established protocols while adapting to specific circumstances
22. A fully integrated written contract is signed. A party later claims an earlier oral promise contradicts it. What rule generally applies? → The parol evidence rule bars evidence contradicting the written terms
23. An agent receives a client's order by text message on a personal phone. What is the best compliance response? → Have the communication captured and retained by the firm's approved archiving system
24. Who is generally responsible for criminal prosecution of willful violations of the Uniform Securities Act? → The state attorney general or appropriate prosecuting attorney
25. In Series 66 - Uniform Combined State Law, how does contract review & negotiation contribute to professional credibility? → By demonstrating competence, maintaining standards, and delivering consistent results
26. Under the USA, an investment adviser's net capital requirement is enforced by: → The state securities Administrator
27. Which statement about waivers is correct under the USA? → Any condition requiring a buyer to waive compliance with the Act is void
28. What is the PRIMARY benefit of standardizing professional development & standards practices in Series 66 - Uniform Combined State Law? → Consistency, easier maintenance, and improved collaboration among team members
29. A performance-based fee charged by an investment adviser must be based on: → A share of capital gains or capital appreciation
30. Which competency is MOST essential for professionals working in document preparation & filing in Series 66 - Uniform Combined State Law? → Critical thinking combined with practical application of knowledge